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Faithfulness in marriage.

Should not we be faithful in our marriage, even if our spouse is not?

God always stays faithful to His covenant with us. When we were unfaithful to Him, He brought us healing by sacrificing His own life. The Lord told Hosea (Hosea 3:1), to return to his wife although she was an adulteress. God further told him to love her as the Lord loves the Israelites, though they were unfaithful to Him.
 
The sin of others never excuses our own. And yes, we are to be faithful as he is faithful.
 
A valid marriage lasts forever, no spouse can change that through his or her actions.
 
LOL

Mutz, what is you definition of death? There are a couple of people here who think marriage is death. :-D j/k


Being faithful in marriage is a Commandment. :angel:
 
vic said:
LOL

Mutz, what is you definition of death? There are a couple of people here who think marriage is death. :-D j/k


Being faithful in marriage is a Commandment. :angel:

My definition of death? Ummm. The first death? The second death? Death to self? But as far as marriage being death - you could be dead right :wink:

Commandments? - If you break one you break em all.

I think there is more to 'faithfulness' than just the physical act that we seem to use as a measure of it, don't you?
 
arunangelo said:
Should not we be faithful in our marriage, even if our spouse is not?

God always stays faithful to His covenant with us. When we were unfaithful to Him, He brought us healing by sacrificing His own life. The Lord told Hosea (Hosea 3:1), to return to his wife although she was an adulteress. God further told him to love her as the Lord loves the Israelites, though they were unfaithful to Him.
You are absolutely not presenting the FACTS in this matter at all chap.

God loved the Israelites and He IS faithful.
And He was faithful as He ENDED the covenant He made with all the people over their whoredoms against Him.
Hosea is meant to show Gods patience and love towards her and her treachery against Him.
It was not meant for folks to pervert into some UNconditional marriage covenant as some do.

==========================================================

One old covenant replaced by one new covenant.
by WmTipton

Assertions/Conclusions of this Article
This writing is simply to refute the argument that some portion of Hebrews is still under the old covenant. Some seemingly assert that God did not include Judah in the ending of the old covenant.


Supporting Evidence
As far as the Mosaic covenant (what we are discussing here) is concerned there is ONE physical nation of Hebrews...ONE...not two, not three...ONE.

God made a covenant to that nation thru the man Moses and later ended that covenant with that one nation by the ratification of the new covenant with Jesus dying on the cross.
Yes, I understand about the separation of the Nation, but that is not relevant to the covenant made by God thru Moses to the Hebrews...to ALL Hebrew people in the desert.
Jeremiah specifically mentions both kingdoms, showing that BOTH were playing the harlot.

And I saw, when for all the causes whereby backsliding Israel committed adultery I had put her away, and given her a bill of divorce; yet her treacherous sister Judah feared not, but went and played the harlot also.
(Jer 3:8)

And in Zechariah 11:10- we see that the covenant made to ALL of the peoples is 'broken' by God Himself finally (a prophecy about what was to occur at the cross).

And I took my staff, even Beauty, and cut it asunder, that I might break my covenant which I had made with all the people. And it was broken in that day: and so the poor of the flock that waited upon me knew that it was the word of the LORD.
(Zec 11:10-11)

And Zechariah there in 11:14 also deals with Judah AND "Israel"....

Then I cut asunder mine other staff, even Bands, that I might break the brotherhood between Judah and Israel.
(Zec 11:14)

The WHOLE of the Nation is being accounted for...not just one kingdom as you might be implying...Surely no one is naive enough to sit here and proclaim that God ended the covenant with an adulterous 'Israel' and then kept Judah.

The covenant made to 'all the people' was 'broken' (ended, cut asunder) by God (altho the allusion is to Christ Himself) as foretold there in Zechariah 11 at the cross when the Mosaic economy was made obsolete ("waxeth old" Heb 8:13 ) when He has said "a new covenant"
The ENTIRE scope of that covenant was ended with the physical nation (regardless of what you want to call them) of Gods 'people' when the New covenant was ratified with Jesus' death on the cross.

There was a remnant (a part of that nation), as there always has been, who is faithful to God.
These are those who accepted their messiah and were included in this new covenant from the start....the rest(of the Nation) were blinded.
Shall I continue ... ?

The New testament makes no special distinction for Israel and Judah like you are seemingly trying to make regarding the ending of the Mosaic Covenant.

*IF* this were of any sort of issue, the surely Paul would have mentioned it in the NT....he didnt.
Oddly, I cant even remember any stink being made of it in the one NT writing where it absolutely should have been presented *IF* it was of any consequence, and that is the letter to the Hebrews themselves.

Oddly, these views that seem to say that ANY part of the old covenant (Mosaic) is still in effect are in essence saying that Jesus had to have lied when He said HE is the ONLY way to the Father.
IF ANY man can still come to the Father by the Old Covenant and its requirements, then Christ was a liar.

The old covenant is passed, made obsolete by the New as proven in Hebrews (Heb 8:13). It is entirely obsolete..NO MAN, no Jew, no Hebrew, no one of Israel, no one of Judah...will come to the Father by ANY other means since the cross other than by the ONE door, Jesus Christ.
 
oh good grief.
Sorry, I wasnt paying attention to the age of this thread or Id not have posted in it.
My bad...
 
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