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God Declared That His Glory Is His Alone

Isa 48:11
I will not give my glory unto another.

Yet Jesus declared that He shared the Glory of God

Jhn 17:5
And now, O Father, glorify thou me with thine own self with the glory which I had with thee before the world was.


How is it possible for Jesus to ever have any of God's Glory after God has declared sole ownership of His Glory ?

Is this just a case of Jesus thinking a lot more of Himself then He should ?

Or is it Jesus just outright falsifying the facts ?

Or is there some other explanation ?
 
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Could Jesus have claimed that He shared the Glory of God, the Glory that God declared was His ALONE out of the defiance and anger exhibited by a spoiled Son not being given what he wants from His Father ?


Isa 48:11
I will not give my glory unto another.
 
Is there anything imaginable that could cause an Almighty God to have lowered His Divine standard of His declaring sole ownership of His glory ?
 
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