Heard from a preacher who supports Jews of their religious practices and he also quotes Romans 3:2 to support this statement.
Romans 3:1-2 What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?
Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God.
My question is if Christ has become righteousness to mankind then how are jews, the people of God an exemption? because Christ came to save his own people first
Romans 3:1-2 What advantage then hath the Jew? or what profit is there of circumcision?
Much every way: chiefly, because that unto them were committed the oracles of God.
My question is if Christ has become righteousness to mankind then how are jews, the people of God an exemption? because Christ came to save his own people first