torulethenight
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- Jan 24, 2011
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The orthodox doctrine of the atonement portrays God as being entirely unable to forgive sins, unless He is paid in blood to do it. This is a contradiction in terms however, since a debt can only be forgiven if it is not paid. Regardless of who pays for a debt, if the debt does get paid, then it can no longer be "forgiven".
The reasoning for the orthodox theory of the atonement is based on God's "justice" (justice, that is, in the Latin sense of legal justice). The theory goes, that God demands that human beings render perfect obedience to the Mosaic Law in order to be declared "righteous". Jesus' obedience (i.e. "perfect" obedience) to the Mosaic Law and subsequent death is viewed to be the "payment" required in order for God to be "just" (by demanding perfect adherence to the Mosaic Law), while also being able to extend "mercy" (because the demands of "justice" had been met by Jesus) to sinners.
But does this not make God the ultimate legalist? A God Who is not only unwilling, but also entirely unable to forgive "freely"? Is God's love subservient to God's law? How can this be?
The reasoning for the orthodox theory of the atonement is based on God's "justice" (justice, that is, in the Latin sense of legal justice). The theory goes, that God demands that human beings render perfect obedience to the Mosaic Law in order to be declared "righteous". Jesus' obedience (i.e. "perfect" obedience) to the Mosaic Law and subsequent death is viewed to be the "payment" required in order for God to be "just" (by demanding perfect adherence to the Mosaic Law), while also being able to extend "mercy" (because the demands of "justice" had been met by Jesus) to sinners.
But does this not make God the ultimate legalist? A God Who is not only unwilling, but also entirely unable to forgive "freely"? Is God's love subservient to God's law? How can this be?
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