- Jun 22, 2023
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Jacob Changed To James By Catholics
In the days of King James II the European bible was in Latin, and only the priest were allowed to have a bible.
The Vatican is of the belief that they have the right to change the wording of scriptures.
It was against Vatican law in those days for the public to be in possession of bible scriptures, or historical writings.
Since the name James is not in the most ancient of bible text, although it is given as a interpretation; that would mean that it was the Vatican who made the change during the days of King James II, AKA James the Just.
The use of James occurs in the Wyclifite version written around 1382.
Luther’s German Bible only has Jakob throughout it.
The Luther Bible is a German Bible translation by Martin Luther, first printed with both testaments in 1534.
Because Luther's German bible does not have the name James in it, but the Wyclifte bible does, that means that just prior to the printing of the Wyclifite version, the Latin bible was changed.
James or Jacob
The “James” or “Jacob” question.
The name “James” seems to have been around from the time of Tyndale and Wycliffe. In the New and Old Testament: German “Jakob” OT, and “Jakobus” NT; the Vulgate, “Iacob” OT, “Iacobus” NT. The French Bible Jerusalem identifies the OT figure as “Jacob,” while the NT figure is “Jacques.” And of course, the New Testament and the Septuagint apply the name Ιακωβ to the patriarch, but Ιακωβος (the declinable form) to all the companions of Jesus [Yahshua] who go by this name.
The “Christian name” James or the “Jewish name” Jacob.
It is said that the name James is derived from the same Hebrew name as Jacob. James, meaning: He who "supplants." Jacob: He who "grasp heel."
The name James came into English language from the French variation of the late Latin name, Iacomus; a dialect variant of Iacobus, from the New Testament Greek Ἰάκωβος (Iákōbos), a variant form from Hebrew name יעקב (Yaʻaqov) Jacob.
The modern name James did not exist during the days of Yahshua.
King James, the Just?
In regards to speaking about King James II of Aragon being called "James the Just."
Link: James II of Aragon - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/James_II_of_Aragon
The name James entered the scriptures in place of Jacob about the time of King James II.
The 1611 KJV and that King James only continued to use James in place of Jacob.
King James II (10 August 1267 – 2 November or 5 November 1327).
King James is also called King James the Just. Aragonese: Chaime lo Chusto, Catalan: Jaume el Just, Spanish: Jaime el Justo.
Saint Jacob. ( In Hebrew: יעקב) Jacob , (died AD 62).
Saint James the Just.
He was known as Jacob the Just in 350 AD in the Gnostic Gospel of Thomas 12
Quote: The Disciples said to Jesus, "We are aware that you will depart from us. Who will be our leader?" Jesus said to them, "No matter where you come it is to [James / Jacob] the Just that you shall go, for whose sake heaven and earth have come to exist."
The Gospel of Thomas is dated at around 340 AD. The First Apocalypse of James is also called the Revelation of Jacob, because the original text has the name Jacob, but is given the interpretation James. The actual name used is Jacob, but translators keep giving the name Jacob the interpretation "James."
The name James entered scriptures about the same time as King James was being called James the Just, which also was said of Jacob in the Gnostic writings. Translators for whatever the reason keep giving Jacob the name James, even though it does not appear in the most ancient text. It would be logical to conclude that the reason was to honor King James II, by adding his name to scriptures. You would think that the translators would have more respect for the bible then that. The Hellenist and Kabbalist were also involved in corrupting scriptures, usually in matters of the Messiah Yahshua.
In order for the name James to appear in the Strong's and NIV Exhaustive concordances, they would have to be basing the scriptures upon late translations, and not the earliest of text.
Every mention of the Patriarch Jacob, for example, is translated as Jacob, not James – yet it’s the same Greek word. And more significantly, according to Matthew 1.16, Joseph’s father – Jesus’ adoptive grandfather – was called Iakob. And in English Bibles you will find that he is called Jacob, not James.
Here’s the NRSV:
‘Jacob the father of Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom Jesus was born’ (Matt 1.16)
Yet, when the same name – Jacob – is used for Jesus’ brother in Matthew 13.55, it’s translated as James:
‘Is not this the carpenter’s son? Is not his mother called Mary? And are not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas?’ (Matt 13.55)
Let’s be quite clear: it’s the same word – Iakob. And yet it’s translated two different ways. Joseph clearly named his son in honour of his own father. And yet in every English translation, the translators call one Jacob, and the other James.
The name James wasn’t even invented until about the twelvth century – it’s an English version of the Spanish name Jaime.
Here is the word Jacob: ϊακωβ [Iakob]. It is not the word Iakobos which is translated as James. We are talking about Matthew 4:21. The word is [Iakob] there, and not Iakobos which is translated as James.
Note: Did you know that Judah appears in the NT over 40 times, yet is only translated once in the KJV correctly as Judah? So it's not about the Greek name it's about a selective translation.
In my opinion it is wrong to deliberately alter scriptures. When scholars do that it makes the scriptures look as if they are a falsehood. The name James is not the only change that has been made to scriptures. People have to conspire to make those changes.
con•spire/kənˈspī(ə)r/Verb
1. Make secret plans jointly to commit an unlawful or harmful act.
2. (of events or circumstances) Seem to be working together to bring about a particular result, typically to someone's detriment.
In a image capture of Matthew 4:21 from the Codex Sinaiticus, the name Jacob is given the interpretation James. That is your proof.
In a image capture of Mark 5:37 from the Codex Sinaiticus, the ΟΝ ending that follows the first instance is the accusative ending, and the ΟΥ ending of the second is the genitive.
Ιάκωβον = Jacob as a direct object in a sentence.
Ιακώβου = Jacob as a possessive noun.
Γιγνωσκω τον Ιάκωβον. = I know Jacob.
Γιγνωσκω τον του Ιακώβου αδελφον. = I know Jacob's brother.
And Mark 13:3 it is: ϊακωβοϲ. And in Mark 15:40 it is: ϊακωβου. And in Luke 9:28 it is: ϊακωβον. And in Galatains 1:19 it is: ϊακωβο.
Studying this further, I find that the last two letters after Jacob are words not being translated. See the scriptures for all program: Scripture4All - Greek/Hebrew interlinear Bible software
It literally is Jacob, and it is not being translated that way.
Greek is an inflectional language. This means that meaning is often conveyed in prefixes and suffixes, whereas in English we convey the same meaning with prepositions, word order and sometimes suffixes (not normally prefixes, though adverbial modifiers can often be prefixed [such as un- and under- and re-]).
Greek nouns and adjectives have endings that fall into three major groups, called "declensions". These declensions have five functional sets of endings determined by the function of the word in a sentence. The meaning is indicated in the last letter or two of the word. This is consistent for Greek nouns and adjectives.
Foreign words translated into Greek do not normally receive these endings. That's the case with the Hebrew names Ἀβραάμ (Abraham), Ἰσαάκ (Isaac), Ἰάκωβ (Jacob), among many others (if you check the translation of the LXX from Hebrew into Greek, you'll find so many of them!).
At some point in the Hellenization of Israel, certain traditionally Hebrew names (such as Jacob) took on case endings, which is a result of their converting the names into Greek. Instead of using the traditional form of the name Ἰάκωβ, we find case endings, such as Ἰάκωβος. It's a Greek version of the name, allowing it to function in all ways like Greek names.
Thus, there are two forms of the name:
1) the more ancient form, transliterated directly from Hebrew, not using any case endings -- used for the Patriarch Jacob.
2) the more Greek form, operating with case endings -- used for contemporaries of the Hellenists.
And so the bottom line is this, the name Jacob should have been translated as James.
In the days of King James II the European bible was in Latin, and only the priest were allowed to have a bible.
The Vatican is of the belief that they have the right to change the wording of scriptures.
It was against Vatican law in those days for the public to be in possession of bible scriptures, or historical writings.
Since the name James is not in the most ancient of bible text, although it is given as a interpretation; that would mean that it was the Vatican who made the change during the days of King James II, AKA James the Just.
The use of James occurs in the Wyclifite version written around 1382.
Luther’s German Bible only has Jakob throughout it.
The Luther Bible is a German Bible translation by Martin Luther, first printed with both testaments in 1534.
Because Luther's German bible does not have the name James in it, but the Wyclifte bible does, that means that just prior to the printing of the Wyclifite version, the Latin bible was changed.
James or Jacob
The “James” or “Jacob” question.
The name “James” seems to have been around from the time of Tyndale and Wycliffe. In the New and Old Testament: German “Jakob” OT, and “Jakobus” NT; the Vulgate, “Iacob” OT, “Iacobus” NT. The French Bible Jerusalem identifies the OT figure as “Jacob,” while the NT figure is “Jacques.” And of course, the New Testament and the Septuagint apply the name Ιακωβ to the patriarch, but Ιακωβος (the declinable form) to all the companions of Jesus [Yahshua] who go by this name.
The “Christian name” James or the “Jewish name” Jacob.
It is said that the name James is derived from the same Hebrew name as Jacob. James, meaning: He who "supplants." Jacob: He who "grasp heel."
The name James came into English language from the French variation of the late Latin name, Iacomus; a dialect variant of Iacobus, from the New Testament Greek Ἰάκωβος (Iákōbos), a variant form from Hebrew name יעקב (Yaʻaqov) Jacob.
The modern name James did not exist during the days of Yahshua.
King James, the Just?
In regards to speaking about King James II of Aragon being called "James the Just."
Link: James II of Aragon - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia.
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/James_II_of_Aragon
The name James entered the scriptures in place of Jacob about the time of King James II.
The 1611 KJV and that King James only continued to use James in place of Jacob.
King James II (10 August 1267 – 2 November or 5 November 1327).
King James is also called King James the Just. Aragonese: Chaime lo Chusto, Catalan: Jaume el Just, Spanish: Jaime el Justo.
Saint Jacob. ( In Hebrew: יעקב) Jacob , (died AD 62).
Saint James the Just.
He was known as Jacob the Just in 350 AD in the Gnostic Gospel of Thomas 12
Quote: The Disciples said to Jesus, "We are aware that you will depart from us. Who will be our leader?" Jesus said to them, "No matter where you come it is to [James / Jacob] the Just that you shall go, for whose sake heaven and earth have come to exist."
The Gospel of Thomas is dated at around 340 AD. The First Apocalypse of James is also called the Revelation of Jacob, because the original text has the name Jacob, but is given the interpretation James. The actual name used is Jacob, but translators keep giving the name Jacob the interpretation "James."
The name James entered scriptures about the same time as King James was being called James the Just, which also was said of Jacob in the Gnostic writings. Translators for whatever the reason keep giving Jacob the name James, even though it does not appear in the most ancient text. It would be logical to conclude that the reason was to honor King James II, by adding his name to scriptures. You would think that the translators would have more respect for the bible then that. The Hellenist and Kabbalist were also involved in corrupting scriptures, usually in matters of the Messiah Yahshua.
In order for the name James to appear in the Strong's and NIV Exhaustive concordances, they would have to be basing the scriptures upon late translations, and not the earliest of text.
Every mention of the Patriarch Jacob, for example, is translated as Jacob, not James – yet it’s the same Greek word. And more significantly, according to Matthew 1.16, Joseph’s father – Jesus’ adoptive grandfather – was called Iakob. And in English Bibles you will find that he is called Jacob, not James.
Here’s the NRSV:
‘Jacob the father of Joseph the husband of Mary, of whom Jesus was born’ (Matt 1.16)
Yet, when the same name – Jacob – is used for Jesus’ brother in Matthew 13.55, it’s translated as James:
‘Is not this the carpenter’s son? Is not his mother called Mary? And are not his brothers James and Joseph and Simon and Judas?’ (Matt 13.55)
Let’s be quite clear: it’s the same word – Iakob. And yet it’s translated two different ways. Joseph clearly named his son in honour of his own father. And yet in every English translation, the translators call one Jacob, and the other James.
The name James wasn’t even invented until about the twelvth century – it’s an English version of the Spanish name Jaime.
Here is the word Jacob: ϊακωβ [Iakob]. It is not the word Iakobos which is translated as James. We are talking about Matthew 4:21. The word is [Iakob] there, and not Iakobos which is translated as James.
Note: Did you know that Judah appears in the NT over 40 times, yet is only translated once in the KJV correctly as Judah? So it's not about the Greek name it's about a selective translation.
In my opinion it is wrong to deliberately alter scriptures. When scholars do that it makes the scriptures look as if they are a falsehood. The name James is not the only change that has been made to scriptures. People have to conspire to make those changes.
con•spire/kənˈspī(ə)r/Verb
1. Make secret plans jointly to commit an unlawful or harmful act.
2. (of events or circumstances) Seem to be working together to bring about a particular result, typically to someone's detriment.
In a image capture of Matthew 4:21 from the Codex Sinaiticus, the name Jacob is given the interpretation James. That is your proof.
In a image capture of Mark 5:37 from the Codex Sinaiticus, the ΟΝ ending that follows the first instance is the accusative ending, and the ΟΥ ending of the second is the genitive.
Ιάκωβον = Jacob as a direct object in a sentence.
Ιακώβου = Jacob as a possessive noun.
Γιγνωσκω τον Ιάκωβον. = I know Jacob.
Γιγνωσκω τον του Ιακώβου αδελφον. = I know Jacob's brother.
And Mark 13:3 it is: ϊακωβοϲ. And in Mark 15:40 it is: ϊακωβου. And in Luke 9:28 it is: ϊακωβον. And in Galatains 1:19 it is: ϊακωβο.
Studying this further, I find that the last two letters after Jacob are words not being translated. See the scriptures for all program: Scripture4All - Greek/Hebrew interlinear Bible software
It literally is Jacob, and it is not being translated that way.
Greek is an inflectional language. This means that meaning is often conveyed in prefixes and suffixes, whereas in English we convey the same meaning with prepositions, word order and sometimes suffixes (not normally prefixes, though adverbial modifiers can often be prefixed [such as un- and under- and re-]).
Greek nouns and adjectives have endings that fall into three major groups, called "declensions". These declensions have five functional sets of endings determined by the function of the word in a sentence. The meaning is indicated in the last letter or two of the word. This is consistent for Greek nouns and adjectives.
Foreign words translated into Greek do not normally receive these endings. That's the case with the Hebrew names Ἀβραάμ (Abraham), Ἰσαάκ (Isaac), Ἰάκωβ (Jacob), among many others (if you check the translation of the LXX from Hebrew into Greek, you'll find so many of them!).
At some point in the Hellenization of Israel, certain traditionally Hebrew names (such as Jacob) took on case endings, which is a result of their converting the names into Greek. Instead of using the traditional form of the name Ἰάκωβ, we find case endings, such as Ἰάκωβος. It's a Greek version of the name, allowing it to function in all ways like Greek names.
Thus, there are two forms of the name:
1) the more ancient form, transliterated directly from Hebrew, not using any case endings -- used for the Patriarch Jacob.
2) the more Greek form, operating with case endings -- used for contemporaries of the Hellenists.
And so the bottom line is this, the name Jacob should have been translated as James.
