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Jeremiah 16:21

mdo757 said:
That is not correct Mysteryman. You are forgetting that God's name has been removed from the old and new testament. See:

Deuteronomy 6:4
Hear, O Israel: [The LORD / Yahwah] our God, [the LORD / Yahwah] is one.

Mark 12:29
"The most important one," answered Jesus, "is this: 'Hear, O Israel, [the Lord / Yahwah] our God, [the Lord / Yahwah] is one.

1 Corinthians 6:17
But he who unites himself with [the Lord / Yahwah] is one with him in spirit.


Hi mdo

"kurios" = Lord - ?? How do you equate "Kurios" with "yahwah" ? And how can you prove that his name was taken out of the NT ?

John 1:23 the word "Lord" in this verse is "kurios" < So if you believe what you are saying, you then would be saying that the Lord Jesus Christ is "yahwah". And I find that difficult for me, knowing your beliefs.

Maybe you can clear up the fog on this one ??
 
Mysteryman said:
mdo757 said:
That is not correct Mysteryman. You are forgetting that God's name has been removed from the old and new testament. See:

Deuteronomy 6:4
Hear, O Israel: [The LORD / Yahwah] our God, [the LORD / Yahwah] is one.

Mark 12:29
"The most important one," answered Jesus, "is this: 'Hear, O Israel, [the Lord / Yahwah] our God, [the Lord / Yahwah] is one.

1 Corinthians 6:17
But he who unites himself with [the Lord / Yahwah] is one with him in spirit.


Hi mdo

"kurios" = Lord - ?? How do you equate "Kurios" with "yahwah" ? And how can you prove that his name was taken out of the NT ?

John 1:23 the word "Lord" in this verse is "kurios" < So if you believe what you are saying, you then would be saying that the Lord Jesus Christ is "yahwah". And I find that difficult for me, knowing your beliefs.

Maybe you can clear up the fog on this one ??
Look in the NIV Exhaustive Concordance under "Lord." All of the new testaments are copies of the copies. The Catholics would take the original copies from the Judaizing Christians and distroy them, then they would replace them with their own version. That is how it has come that we have Paul using the term Father; and the trinity proofs, hell in place of Gehenna and grave. Also Peter's statement proving the authority of the Pope and church. That is also why God's personal name is missing, because the Catholics did not believe His name should be known by the people. Here is something for you to read, this is about the disciple using God's personal name in the originals. After killing Hebrew Christians, the Jews would take the New testament scripture written in Hebrew, and carefully cut the name of God out. Then they would place the divine name in a safe place to keep. Following that, they then would burn the remainder of the scrolls in a fire. Rabbi Yose who lived during the second century AD states that, "One cuts out the reference to the Divine Name which are in them [the Christian writings] and stores them away, and the rest burns." One of his characteristic sayings is, "He who proclaimed the coming of the Messiah,[John] and he who hated scholars and their disciples;[Yahshua] and that false prophet and those slanderers, will have no part in the future world." According to Bacher this was directed against the Hebrew Christians. And so it is an established fact then, that the disciples of Christ did in fact write the Holy Name of God into the New Testament.
 
I almost forgot, the words messenger was replaced with angel, and the word congregation was replaced with church. Also the word Harmageddon is misspelled. It should read "Mount of the congregation Zion."
 
Hi mdo

I fully understand all of the changes that have taken place by either the translators or the copiest. But if you look at the overall Word of God. God put His emphasis upon His title, not His name !

Have no other gods before me. I am the Lord God. Paul wrote about the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. The emphasis is upon His title.

In the OT, the three letter phrase - "Jah" means -- God. The same holds true using - "yah". "yah" is the same as "Jah". "yah" is the more proper writting. For instance , the name "Jahzerah" means - God protects. Names with "Je" are the same, such as - "Jehohanan" = Jah = God is gracious. There is much more emphasis on "elohim" throughout the OT. "el" pertains to the power of God, which means the mighty one. The same with "theos" in the NT, which refers to the object of God, which this title represents.

The word "Lord" is also a title. The greek word "kurios" is a title, not a name !

The titles - King, Lord, God, Father , are throughout the Word of God, used with emphasis on the title , instead of a name.

Jesus Christ is going to hand over the kingdom to his Father, that God may be all in all. Notice the emphasis upon the titles !

This is because God has magnified His Word above his name.
 
Mysteryman said:
Hi mdo

I fully understand all of the changes that have taken place by either the translators or the copiest. But if you look at the overall Word of God. God put His emphasis upon His title, not His name !

Have no other gods before me. I am the Lord God. Paul wrote about the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ. The emphasis is upon His title.

In the OT, the three letter phrase - "Jah" means -- God. The same holds true using - "yah". "yah" is the same as "Jah". "yah" is the more proper writting. For instance , the name "Jahzerah" means - God protects. Names with "Je" are the same, such as - "Jehohanan" = Jah = God is gracious. There is much more emphasis on "elohim" throughout the OT. "el" pertains to the power of God, which means the mighty one. The same with "theos" in the NT, which refers to the object of God, which this title represents.

The word "Lord" is also a title. The greek word "kurios" is a title, not a name !

The titles - King, Lord, God, Father , are throughout the Word of God, used with emphasis on the title , instead of a name.

Jesus Christ is going to hand over the kingdom to his Father, that God may be all in all. Notice the emphasis upon the titles !

This is because God has magnified His Word above his name.
and his name the only name.
The letter "J" is about 500 years old. The letter "V" replaced the "W" as a germanic infuence adout 800 AD to 1200 AD.
 
You are mistaking about many things. I will put together someting for you to read else where, were I can edit what Im writting. Bye, until later.
 
Mohrb said:
dadof10's point is taken that the KJV, in fact, translates it the way that it does. And that all the scholars that agree with the KJV... in fact... agree with the KJV. Well done.

Typical snarky, sarcastic comment from a person with no intellectual honesty and no common sense. I'm not surprised, as this is also the typical response from most JWs eventually. Your caricature of my "point" is not so much insulting as it is pitiful. Anyone who has read the previous posts can see all the points that I made that still remain unanswered by you. Here are some in case you decide to attempt some restoration of your credibility and actually respond:

That experts in Greek are cited in a discussion on Greek, NOT AS "UNQUESTIONABLY" PERFECT but only as authoritative, is not fallacious. Do you agree? I can't tell. First you cry "Ad Verecundiam" to every expert I cite, then you say "citing an expert is usually fine and dandy". Which is it and why? And, please, no more straw men.

That citing two expert sources THAT YOU AGREE WITH, in opposition to the NWT translation of Jn 1:1 is not an example of the Ad Populum fallacy.

That when Thomas says "...MY God", he means HIS God, YHWH.

That dictionaries, commentaries, lexicons and interlinears, are all sources and you are taking the TRANSLATORS WORD FOR THE CONTENT. YOU ARE NOT A TRANSLATOR no matter how many sources you use.

That Jesus was called (anarthrous) "Theos" in Jn 1:1, which you translate as "...a god", yet translate as YHWH in Jn: 1:2 and everywhere else.

You claimed Thayer's notes somehow bolster the NWT translation of Jn. 1:1, I ask "how", to which you respond....nothing.

You make a huge deal about Jn 10:34, when I respond with an exegesis of the verses, you reply with...nothing.

I hate to look like I'm using dadof10's argument... but in this case, I believe it's true that -every- translation renders the word "shem" as "name" rather than "title." And every reference I've seen translates one's "shem" as primarily meaning someone's personal name.

:biglol You hate to use an argument that actually makes sense??? That would be a change for ya. So, I guess using "-every- translation" as an argument isn't an example of Ad Verecundiam or Ad Populum argumentation now, huh? Only when it helps your side? Let someone go long enough, eventually they show their true colors. :oops :shame
 
*Bump for MM*

I don't know whether you saw this or not.

Mysteryman said:
dadof10 said:
Mysteryman said:
Okay, thanks for your reply. But that still leaves a question unaswered. How do you follow Jesus Christ ? I understand rcc beliefs fairly well. So I would appreciate an answer of how do you follow Jesus Christ ?

Jesus promised us the comforter, and that the comforter would come in his name, and teach us all things and remind us of the things that he spoke. This comforter is called a couple of things. One, is Christ in us. The other is called, the Spirit of his Son in our hearts. Another is called, the Spirit of truth. This is where truth comes from. Men of God speak the truth, but it is confirmed by the Spirit of truth that is within us. The reason God sent Apostles, Prophets, Evangilists, and Teachers and Pastors, is so that the body of Christ would not be blown about with every wind of doctrine, by the sleight of men, and their cunning craftyness , whereby they lie in wait to deceive. Without the Spirit of truth, how else can one tell if someone is speaking the truth ?

Hi MM,

We are talking by each other, so I think it might be helpful to give you some quick instruction on the Catholic view of the role the Holy Spirit.

The Holy Spirit speaks through the teaching authority of the Catholic Church (Magisterium) for PUBLIC revelation, that is, Teaching that is binding on the faithful. Doctrine. If I want to know if salvation comes through faith alone, the Church has the answer and the REASON WHY. Please note, we do not just follow blindly. We are encouraged to ask questions, which are ALL answered.

The Holy Spirit speaks to people privately, but this is not binding on anyone but the recipient. If I pray for guidance on a particular issue, I am confident that the Holy Spirit will give me an answer. I may not like it, but He will answer me, none the less. This, however, is only for me personally.

The Church teaches that, if we receive any private revelation, it must be tested against revealed Truth. If we "receive from the spirit" that, for example, salvation is by faith alone, we must "test the Spirit" (as scripture says to do) by the proper authority, the Church Christ founded, since this is a doctrinal issue.

This is the way the Spirit works. If He is, indeed, the Spirit of Truth, He cannot teach error. If the "Spirit" tells you that we are saved by "faith alone", and another believer that we are not, how are we to decide which "Spirit" is right?


Hi dadof10 :

Again, thanks for your reply. But your reply brings up another question, which is a continuation of what we are now discussing. You just explained to me, that if you receive revelation, that it must be tested against revealed truth. I am sure you are aware how vague this statement is, correct ? You also said that everything must be tested by the proper authority , the church Christ founded, on doctrinial issues.

What I understand you to be saying, is that no individual can receive revelation from God, as a revealing of the truth , without strick adherant to the church interpreters. Am I understanding you correctly ?

Wouldn't this type of adherant just nullify the revealing that a person can receive from the Holy Spirit ? In other words, if I receive a revealing that one does not need to be water baptized for any reason. And the church standard of authority states otherwise. Would not the organizations stance come between the Holy Spirit talking and revealing to me, and the stance of the organization ?

What if the Holy Spirit wants me to help the organization to change its stance on certain teachings ? Especially when the Holy Spirit knows that the organization is in error. But the question boils down to the fact, that the organization becomes the stumbling block to hold back the truth from its congregation. Thus squashing the truth with its traditions of men and untruths.

So you see, you still have not answered the question. By what standard is truth suppose to be relevant ? Who judges truth and error ? Men ? Or God ?

You are suggesting that the Holy Spirit works through certain men, and everyone is just suppose to believe what they say without any means by which truth can be judged or untruth can be judged.

But the scriptures tell us, that there is a way to judge. Each individual who is a Christian, has the Spirit of truth in them. So each individual is the final judge. Not the group of leaders ! Nor a council of leaders !

One man , not a council of men, told Peter that he was to blame, and that he was not holding the gospel of Christ uprightly. One man ! His name was Paul. And the Holy Spirit was working through this man Paul. Yet, even Barnabas was carried away with their dissimulation. The majority of the leadership were in the wrong. That included the Apostle Peter. But this one man Paul was the only man that was correct in this instance. The council of men were in error, and the Holy Spirit working through this one Man Paul, was correct. I believe this is still happening in our day and time. And it will continue to happen, as long as men who might or might not be called of God. Hold councils and judge and elect what is the truth by way of their councils. The truth from God does not come down from God in this manner. God calls out certain men of God, and God talks directly through these men. And sometimes , certain men of God need to be corrected, as such was the case with Peter in Galatians chapter 2.

The Spirit of truth is not in councils of men, but in individual believers.

MM,

This is getting pretty close to a Catholic debate. If you have the time, would you like to take this topic to the 1 vs. 1 section? If not, I'll respond here when I have time and hope for the best.
 
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