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Bible Study Law Liquidated

netchaplain

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If righteousness (Gal 2:21) and redemption came by the Law then only Jews could ever be saved, for Gentiles were never under it prior to its annulling (Heb 7:18, 19; 8:7; 10:9). Until all the Law would be “fulfilled” it could not “pass” (Mat 5:18), thus its passing came when Christ fulfilled, or, finished it (Rom 10:4). Remember, it is Christ’s words that “shall not pass away” (Mat 24:35), not the Mosaic Law!

In this article it makes a point that since the Law did not require one’s death for obedience, then “why did Christ die?” Thus it was His expiation for sin (after His obedience to the Law manifested His qualification for sacrifice which required a perfect subject), which voids the curse, and not His supposedly imputed Law-obedience to the believer. The Lord Jesus has always been righteous by virtue of His deity and sinless state (which His Law-obedience manifested), and it is this righteousness which is imputed to the believer!

Those who were under the Law were “under the curse” (Gal 3:10), for it manifested souls to be “ungodly” (1 Ti 1:9), thus the Law could only direct toward deliverance, not effect it (Gal 3:24, 24), because the Law was “not of faith” (Gal 3:12) but of works. Hence we enter in, not on the works of man but on the works of the Lord Jesus Christ! Besides, the obedience of the Law required not just the outward working which anyone could have done—but also the accompaniment of a sinless soul by the Doer.
NC



Law Liquidated

“Christ is the end of the Law for righteousness to everyone that believes” (Rom 10:4).

When the Lord Jesus died on the Cross, He bore for Israel the curse of the Law, for they alone were under the Law. Divine Law, being broken, does not ask for future good conduct on the part of the offender, but for his death, and that only. Now Christ having died, all the claims of the Law against that nation which had been placed under the law were completely met and ended. So that even Jews could now believe, and say, “I am dead to the Law!”

To him that believeth, therefore, Jew or Gentile, Christ dead, buried, risen and ascended is the end of the Law for righteousness—in the sense of Law’s disappearance from the scene! Law does not know, or take cognizance of believers. We read in Romans 7:6 that those who had been under the Law were discharged from the Law, brought to naught, put out of business (katargeo), with respect to the Law. The Law has nothing to do with them, as regards to righteousness.

The words “Christ is the end of the Law” cannot mean He is the fulfillment of what the Law required. The Law required obedience to precepts—or death for disobedience. Now Christ died! If it be answered, that before He died He fulfilled the claims of the Law, kept it perfectly, and that this law-keeping of His was reckoned as over against the Israel’s breaking of the Law, then I ask, “Why should Christ die (since death is not required in the case of obedience—NC)? If the claims of the Law were met in His earthly obedience, and if that earthly life of obedience is “reckoned to those who believe,” and the curse of the Law has been removed by His “vicarious law-keeping,” Why then, should Christ die?

Now this idea of Christ keeping the Law for “us” (for they will include us among the Israelites, even though the Law was not given to Gentiles), is a deadly heresy, no matter who teaches it. Paul tells us plainly how the curse of the Law was removed: “Christ redeemed us (meaning the Jewish believers) from the curse of the Law, having become a curse for us” (Gal 3:13). It was on the Cross, and not by an earthly life of obedience that Christ bore the Law’s curse!

There was no law given “which could make alive,” Paul says; “otherwise righteousness would have been by it” (Gal 3:21). Therefore those who speak of Christ, as taking the place of fulfilling the Law for us—as “the object at which the Law aimed” (Alford); or, “the fulfillment or accomplishment of the Law” (Calvin); give the Law an office that God did not give it. There is not in all Scripture a hint of the doctrine that Christ’s earthly life—His obedience as a man under the Law—is “put to the account” of any sinner whatsoever! That obedience which was perfect, was in order that He could “present Himself through the eternal Spirit without spot unto God” (Heb 9:14) as a sin-offering. It was also in order to His sacrificial death, as “a curse” for Israel (and for us believing Gentiles who were under the curse of “the law of sin“, which was incurred unto the whole world - Gen 2:17—NC).

It is because Reformed theology (though well intended—NC) has kept us Gentiles under the Law, if not as a means of righteousness, then as “a rule of life,” that all the trouble has arisen (legalism, which was always Paul’s greatest opposition to the doctrine of grace—NC). The Law is no more a rule of life than it is a means of righteousness. Walking in the Spirit has now taken the place of walking by ordinances. God has another principle under which He has positioned His saints: “You are not under law, but under grace” (Rom 6:14). “For the law of the Spirit of life in Christ Jesus has made me free from the law of sin and death” (Rom 8:2).

- Wm R Newell



Excerpt from MJS devotional for July 11:
“If and when the trial comes, you will find Him waiting there.” - MJS

“We should always be prepared for circumstances that will arise, and for blessings that are to come, without foreseeing what these circumstances and blessings will be. This preparation consists in attention to present responsibility, and acceptance of present discipline.

“If day by day we first seek divine direction, and then follow it, we shall be ready, when new circumstances arise, for the new blessings which will be offered. Today should be preparation for tomorrow. The only proof that we shall be equal to tomorrow’s test is that we are meeting today’s test believingly and courageously. The only evidence that we shall be willing for God’s will tomorrow is that we are subject to His will today.” -W.G.S.
 
Hello again blessed Chaplain. First of all, there are some great truth's in this thread of yours to be sure. I especially like...."The Law has nothing to do with them, as regards to righteousness" Our righteousness is an extension of Christ's righteousness when we believe on Him by faith thru the grace of God the Father.

It is because Reformed theology (though well intended—NC) has kept us Gentiles under the Law, if not as a means of righteousness, then as “a rule of life,”

This statement has me a little bit not believing. I know the Commands, statues and rules of Elohim are not to be followed for righteousness and the method of Salvation, BUT, as a rule of life? I find them very important because they were adapted from the heart of God(EL) and His delight to see in His Children. I therefore prize His Commands as a sign of my love for Jesus.

May God bless you and yours my friend, I love You,
Chopper
 
This statement has me a little bit not believing. I know the Commands, statues and rules of Elohim are not to be followed for righteousness and the method of Salvation, BUT, as a rule of life? I find them very important because they were adapted from the heart of God(EL) and His delight to see in His Children. I therefore prize His Commands as a sign of my love for Jesus.

May God bless you and yours my friend, I love You,
Chopper
Hi brother Chopper - I realize that it's difficult to understand the passing of the Decalogue, but if we see what is was intended for we can understand God desired for believer to progress from "love your neighbor as yourself" to "love as Christ loves". This is why the command to love as He loved is not the same as love as we love.
 
hello netchaplian, dirtfarmer here

In your post there are many discussion points. I will converse with you on a couple and give how I see them.

As to Christ being the end of the law, as you stated, I find to not be the correct way to state it. Christ fulfilled the law making it powerless over the believers. We are told that the law, if used lawfully, will reveal to the sinner their need for a savior because it is impossible for man to never break one of the laws. We are told that if one law is broken one time, then all the law is broken and a savior is needed. Romans 7:13, " Was then that which is good made dead unto me? God forbid. But sin, that it might appear sin, working in death in my by that which is good, that sin by the commandment might become exceedingly sinful."

Expiation for sin doesn't void the curse of the law; it pays the penalty for sin through the sacrifice of Christ by having faith in Him. 2 Timothy 1:10, " But is now made manifest by the appearing of our Saviour Jesus Christ, who hath abolished death, and hath brought life and immortality to light through the gospel." Death, spiritual, not physical, is the death that has been abolished for those that believe.

The law reveals the righteousness that God requires. The reason why Christ is the end of the law is that, as we are told in scripture, He fulfilled all righteousness by his baptism by John. In order for Christ to become the "heavenly high priest" he had to be "bathed" as per Leviticus 16:4, " He shall put on the holy linen coat, and he shall have the linen breeches upon his flesh, and he shall be girded with a linen girdle, and with the linen mitre shall he be attired: these are the holy garment; therefore shall he wash his flesh in water, and so put them on."

Salvation has always been on the basis of faith, looking either forward to the cross, or backwards to the cross; but always on faith.
 
hello netchaplian, dirtfarmer here

In your post there are many discussion points. I will converse with you on a couple and give how I see them.

As to Christ being the end of the law, as you stated, I find to not be the correct way to state it. Christ fulfilled the law making it powerless over the believers.
Hi DF, and always appreciate your interesting replies! I find your comment here indirectly true in that it was the Law and its curse being removed after being fulfilled by Christ so He could make it powerless to the believing Jew. Thus, the unbelieving Jew is now under the same curse unbelieving Gentiles are under, which is "the law of sin" (Gen 2:17), because the Law has been abolished and Jews can no longer use it.

We are told that the law, if used lawfully,
I believe this statement is in reference to the issue that the Jews were not trying to use it lawfully, e.g. instead of using it for a way which one should treat another they were attempting to use it as a means of righteousness and eternal life, which Paul showed neither could derive from the Law, and is why it was temporarily for only teaching (Gal 3:24) these things, for as you've mentioned, no man could keep the Law, thus it was only to show condemnation.

Expiation for sin doesn't void the curse of the law; it pays the penalty for sin through the sacrifice of Christ by having faith in Him. 2 Timothy 1:10, " But is now made manifest by the appearing of our Saviour Jesus Christ, who hath abolished death, and hath brought life and immortality to light through the gospel."
I suppose that depends on how this is viewed, in which I believe the curse of the Law for the Jew was death. The "righteous requirement of the Law" (Rom 8:4) is a single issue, hence it says "requirement" and is not plural, thus the requirement was obedience or death ("in the day you eat it you shall die"; "the soul that sins shall die"). The curse of sin was not addressed by His obedience to the Law but this obedience qualified Him to address the sin curse (spotless Lamb), which was His obedience to accepting death. It was His payment for the curse that is fulfilled in the believer, not His obedience to the Law.

Christ's sacrifice for sin was a separate issue from His obedience to the Law. If He did not accept death after His obedience, sin would not be judged and condemned "in His body (flesh)" (Rom 8:3) for believers.

God bless us and blessed be God!
 
Hi DF, and always appreciate your interesting replies! I find your comment here indirectly true in that it was the Law and its curse being removed after being fulfilled by Christ so He could make it powerless to the believing Jew. Thus, the unbelieving Jew is now under the same curse unbelieving Gentiles are under, which is "the law of sin" (Gen 2:17), because the Law has been abolished and Jews can no longer use it.


I believe this statement is in reference to the issue that the Jews were not trying to use it lawfully, e.g. instead of using it for a way which one should treat another they were attempting to use it as a means of righteousness and eternal life, which Paul showed neither could derive from the Law, and is why it was temporarily for only teaching (Gal 3:24) these things, for as you've mentioned, no man could keep the Law, thus it was only to show condemnation.


I suppose that depends on how this is viewed, in which I believe the curse of the Law for the Jew was death. The "righteous requirement of the Law" (Rom 8:4) is a single issue, hence it says "requirement" and is not plural, thus the requirement was obedience or death ("in the day you eat it you shall die"; "the soul that sins shall die"). The curse of sin was not addressed by His obedience to the Law but this obedience qualified Him to address the sin curse (spotless Lamb), which was His obedience to accepting death. It was His payment for the curse that is fulfilled in the believer, not His obedience to the Law.

Christ's sacrifice for sin was a separate issue from His obedience to the Law. If He did not accept death after His obedience, sin would not be judged and condemned "in His body (flesh)" (Rom 8:3) for believers.

God bless us and blessed be God!

hello netchaplin, dirtfarmer here

Would you mind explaining your belief that "Christ's sacrifice for sin was a separate issue from His obedience to the Law"? If Christ had not fulfilled the law, could he still have been the sacrifice for sin?
 
hello netchaplin, dirtfarmer here

Would you mind explaining your belief that "Christ's sacrifice for sin was a separate issue from His obedience to the Law"? If Christ had not fulfilled the law, could he still have been the sacrifice for sin?
here because as I read the scriptures the Jew, believing or not and the unbelieving, in Christianity, Gemtilles are still under the Law.
 
hello netchaplin, dirtfarmer here

Would you mind explaining your belief that "Christ's sacrifice for sin was a separate issue from His obedience to the Law"? If Christ had not fulfilled the law, could he still have been the sacrifice for sin?
Good question, but if we think of it, Jesus was not made righteous or spotless from obeying the Law, He manifested He was so by obeying it. Remember, He was the sole being that could ever do this according to the Law's requirement, which was to never even once in His life brake a commandment.

The issue with the Law was not merely the outward acting of the works of it but the doing of it with a sinless heart, which was not intended for man to keep but to reveal man's guilt, because no man could ever keep it in the way it truly required: "For whosoever shall keep the whole law, and yet offend in one point, he is guilty of all" (Jam 2:10).
 
I would say that the Law has been completed that Old Testament (Matt, 27:50-54) Saints were preached to by and they accepted that He was what they awaited. And as I view it, The Law is the most beautiful word picture of Jesus that can be drawn. And though we will not make it our desire should be to be like Jesus.and to do that we should:
  1. Serve

  2. Love

  3. Forgive

  4. Pray

  5. Obey
 
I would say that the Law has been completed that Old Testament (Matt, 27:50-54) Saints were preached to by and they accepted that He was what they awaited.
Hi brother Bill - Amen to this (Jhn 8:56).


And as I view it, The Law is the most beautiful word picture of Jesus that can be drawn. And though we will not make it our desire should be to be like Jesus.and to do that we should:
  1. Serve

  2. Love

  3. Forgive

  4. Pray

  5. Obey
Yes, and those who are born again will receive from the Father the desire for this (Phil 2:13). The confusion arises when we think doing what God desires of us effects favor, but those born again cannot have any more favor of God than we have now in Christ, not even in the next life!

Thanks for your input Bill!
 
In this article it makes a point that since the Law did not require one’s death for obedience, then “why did Christ die?” Thus it was His expiation for sin (after His obedience to the Law manifested His qualification for sacrifice which required a perfect subject), which voids the curse, and not His supposedly imputed Law-obedience to the believer. The Lord Jesus has always been righteous by virtue of His deity and sinless state (which His Law-obedience manifested), and it is this righteousness which is imputed to the believer!

I have seen a number of comments that suggest that it was his obedience to the Law that made Jesus the perfect sacrifice. But is this truly so? Was Jesus obedient to the Law? Or was Jesus obedient to FAITH. You asked why did Christ die? Because he was obedient to Faith, he was obedient to death, even the death of the cross.

The Just shall live by FAITH. Christ was justified because of his perfect Faith. He was the first fruit of Faith. By the law no man shall be justified.

Christ was made the head cornerstone, but he was also made the chief stumbling block. When we try and see Christ through his obedience to the law, we fall into a trap, and stumble at the stumbling stone, as we continue to look for justification under the law through Christ. When we look to justify Christ's perfection under the Law, we tend to miss the Faith by which he lived. As it is written in the law and the prophets: the just shall live by faith.

Do you think Christ was justified by his obedience to Faith?
Or do you think Christ was justified by his obedience to the Law?
 
The law reveals the righteousness that God requires. The reason why Christ is the end of the law is that, as we are told in scripture, He fulfilled all righteousness by his baptism by John.

The law reveals the righteousness that God requires, but it does not reveal the the Righteousness of God. The law is the standard for which someone measures their own righteousness, or rather self-righteousness. Christ is the end of the Law for those that seek the righteousness of God by Faith. For the Righteousness of God is revealed from faith, to faith. As it is written, the just shall live by faith.
 
I have seen a number of comments that suggest that it was his obedience to the Law that made Jesus the perfect sacrifice.
HI EZ - Appreciate the interesting comments! Jesus being a Jew grew up in the Law until time to begin His earthly ministry, which was separate from the Law--Grace. The Lord Jesus' obedience to the Law did not make Him perfect but to manifest He was perfect, otherwise He could not qualified for obedience, but He was the sole keeper of the Law to reveal His holiness and that He was spotless, as we will be upon His return (Eph 5:27).

Or was Jesus obedient to FAITH. [/QUOTE]
Jesus din't need faith but was the creator (author) of it (Heb 12:2) in us. The phrase "faith of Christ" means the same as faith in Christ.[/QUOTE]
 
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