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Bible Study "Love", does anyone 'get it'?

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Imagican

Guest
I often see posts of those that use the word. What I'm wondering is whether or not they are even aware of 'what it means' in a Biblical sense?

So, what IS Love. No, NO. I don't mean: 'God IS Love'. But WHAT is the LOVE that God IS?

MEC
 
I kinda figured that this would be the case.

So, let me start the discussion;

Love IS that which has made it possible for us to EXIST. For it was THROUGH 'love' that God 'created' mankind in order to 'share it' with. That is a 'beginning' of understanding. For if God had NOT 'created' mankind, (His children), then the 'family' would have been INCOMPLETE. I don't want to get any deeper than this now for MOST would be unable to understand, much less accept, anything that would require 'chewing'.

Everything we have been 'given' in The Word is offered for EXAMPLE. Designed to TEACH us that which we OBVIOUSLY have 'lost the ability to do', WITHOUT instruction. Wasn't MEANT to BE this way but that's what has happened.

Now that we have discerned WHAT love was FOR, let us SEE what it IS.

Love is that which is able to transend 'self' and be directed and offered to OTHERS. The substance of love is simply SHARING.

Once needed through the necessity of the Law, (sacrifice), in order to TEACH those that had 'lost their ability' to learn OTHERWISE, (If Adam and Eve had NOT chosen to be disobedient, and given the necessary TIME, they would surely have learned this WITHOUT Law, (sacrifice). But they were tempted and thus entered into 'self' which is CONTRADICTORY to 'true love'. Love of self is a 'perverted' love when it cannot be 'shared'. For there is NOTHING 'wrong' with loving oneself so long as it doesn't negate the possibility of SHARING this love.

And we have the PERFECT example of the OPPOSITE of 'true love' exemplified in ther 'personification' of Satan. For 'SELF LOVE' is that which 'caused' his FALL. For 'self love' For 'pride' IS 'one' of the manifestations of 'self love'.

What is SO important in love is that in order to DO that which we have been 'designed' TO DO, one MUST be able to come to an 'understanding' of it FIRST. Christ KNOWS this love for it was offered to Him by and returned to the SOURCE: The Father, God. And through a PERFECT understanding, Christ was ABLE to overcome temptation and remain FAITHFUL to His Father when sharing His LOVE with US, (mankind), AND it's DESCRIPTION, (through word and example).

The Law was designed for ONE THING: To be a 'teacher'. How? Through the Law was offered instruction on what HAPPENS when love is offered. (the order in which our hearts were DESIGNED to follow). The sad part of this history is that even those that were given the Law, (the teacher of love), chose to simply offer obedience through FEAR instead of actually obtaining the KNOWLEDE that it was MEANT to transfer.

For we have been TOLD that the sacrifices that were OFFERED to God were of LITTLE pleasure to Him. That a 'continuation' of sacrifice for the Jews, is NO different than a continuation of 'sin in Christ', (those that would continually NEED for Christ to DIE again upon the cross. Those that were UNABLE to resist 'self love' and offer 'true love').

And that is WHY Christ came. To offer ONE sacrifice for ETERNITY. One TRULY HOLY sacrifice, (none other EVER have BEEN), that would be ABLE to bring to the hearts of those that ACCEPT it, TRUE 'circumcision', (new covenant that the first was only a 'semblance' of), Which simply means; that which had come to COVER the heart, (sin, or SELF LOVE), separating it from the LOVE that we are MEANT to offer is 'taken away', (circumcised). A 'removal' of that which had been able to 'conceal' or COVER up 'true love'.

I'll stop here for now. Allow a bit of this to sink in, (hopefully). But it is MUCH 'deeper' than what has been covered here so far. Stay tuned.........

MEC
 
Imagican said:
I often see posts of those that use the word. What I'm wondering is whether or not they are even aware of 'what it means' in a Biblical sense?

For the Biblical description of Love (Charity/Agape) I always refer to:
1Co 13:4 Charity is patient, is kind: charity envieth not, dealeth not perversely, is not puffed up, 5 Is not ambitious, seeketh not her own, is not provoked to anger, thinketh no evil: 6 Rejoiceth not in iniquity, but rejoiceth with the truth: 7 Beareth all things, believeth all things, hopeth all things, endureth all things. 8 Charity never falleth away: whether prophecies shall be made void or tongues shall cease or knowledge shall be destroyed.

It's something we can't attain without complete surrender to the guidance and will of the Father shown in the example of Jesus. That's true Biblical love that I understand.

George
 
destiny said:
Does God love people more than righteousness?

I would offer; "ABSOLUTELY". For it is ONLY through LOVE that righteous exists.

And if God DIDN'T love PEOPLE more than righteousness He would NEVER have sent His Son to DIE for them. For God has loved people when they were His ENEMIES through unrighteousness.

I have a question: Does God ' love those' that are disobedient to His will?

MEC
 
It is impossible to love with a pure Godly love without the grace of God enabling us to do so. There's a lot of humanistic love out there passing itself off as Godly love, but most of it is at the expense of His truth so as not to offend man. It favors man instead of upholds God and His words.
True love flows from putting God fist, from seeking first His kingdom and esteeming His word; only from this will flow a love that is pleasing to God.

Someone else said this and I agree..

God commended His love to us while we were yet sinners (sent His love to us in the form of His Son, Jesus Christ).

This is how He loves the world.

His love is only available to us through the cross: for wrath of God abides on the lost sinner who is an enemy of God in His mind through wicked works.

Does God love the lost? Yes, in this sense: He makes His love available to the lost by grace through faith in Jesus Christ.

It is His wrath which abides upon the children of disobedience, however, until they repent: as Jesus said, "Unless ye repent, you will all likewise perish."

Is His love unconditional? Of course not. Why? He is a just God: and He distributes wrath or mercy as He sees fit, judging all men by His Son, Jesus Christ.

That's the simple answer.
 
george08046 said:
Imagican said:
I often see posts of those that use the word. What I'm wondering is whether or not they are even aware of 'what it means' in a Biblical sense?

For the Biblical description of Love (Charity/Agape) I always refer to:
1Co 13:4 Charity is patient, is kind: charity envieth not, dealeth not perversely, is not puffed up, 5 Is not ambitious, seeketh not her own, is not provoked to anger, thinketh no evil: 6 Rejoiceth not in iniquity, but rejoiceth with the truth: 7 Beareth all things, believeth all things, hopeth all things, endureth all things. 8 Charity never falleth away: whether prophecies shall be made void or tongues shall cease or knowledge shall be destroyed.

It's something we can't attain without complete surrender to the guidance and will of the Father shown in the example of Jesus. That's true Biblical love that I understand.

George

Nice George. If we could ONLY to come to accept and understand what is offered in these words that you quote. It would BE heaven here on earth.

MEC
 
destiny said:
It is impossible to love with a pure Godly love without the grace of God enabling us to do so. There's a lot of humanistic love out there passing itself off as Godly love, but most of it is at the expense of His truth so as not to offend man. It favors man instead of upholds God and His words.
True love flows from putting God fist, from seeking first His kingdom and esteeming His word; only from this will flow a love that is pleasing to God.

Someone else said this and I agree..

God commended His love to us while we were yet sinners (sent His love to us in the form of His Son, Jesus Christ).

This is how He loves the world.

His love is only available to us through the cross: for wrath of God abides on the lost sinner who is an enemy of God in His mind through wicked works.

Does God love the lost? Yes, in this sense: He makes His love available to the lost by grace through faith in Jesus Christ.

It is His wrath which abides upon the children of disobedience, however, until they repent: as Jesus said, "Unless ye repent, you will all likewise perish."

Is His love unconditional? Of course not. Why? He is a just God: and He distributes wrath or mercy as He sees fit, judging all men by His Son, Jesus Christ.

That's the simple answer.

Let us not forget the FIRST offering of God's love usward: IN LOVE, God 'created' us. And He did NOT create 'righteous people'. He created people and has ever since ATTMEPTED to TEACH us 'righteousness'.

MEC
 
This loving yet 'JUST' God also destroyed the world with a flood because He hated the wickedness of man. He brought a family out of it because of one mans righteousness. It's best to teach the whole character of God.

A quote..
""Judgment was at the cross, therefore, the judgment men make of the worth of God’s sacrifice is the measure by which God judges them, and either acquits them or condemns them.""

In the Bible we are told, "Behold, I am coming soon, bringing My recompense, to repay every one for what he has done. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end." (Revelation 22:12)
 
destiny said:
This loving yet 'JUST' God also destroyed the world with a flood because He hated the wickedness of man. He brought a family out of it because of one mans righteousness. It's best to teach the whole character of God.

A quote..
""Judgment was at the cross, therefore, the judgment men make of the worth of God’s sacrifice is the measure by which God judges them, and either acquits them or condemns them.""

In the Bible we are told, "Behold, I am coming soon, bringing My recompense, to repay every one for what he has done. I am the Alpha and the Omega, the first and the last, the beginning and the end." (Revelation 22:12)

And while God HATED the 'wickedness of man', He loved man 'enough' to ALLOW them to 'live on' in that one family.

A 'twisted view' of the Genesis account is WHY it is 'misunderstood'.

I ask this question:

It is stated that God decided to 'save' ONE MAN, "Noah, for he was a just man and PERFECT in HIS GENERATIONS". Here's the question: What does, "Perfect in his GENERATIONS", mean? Understanding of this is CRUCIAL to an understanding of the ENTIRE account of Genesis UP TO THE POINT OF THE FLOOD.

MEC
 
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