Love25 said:
Again we can see some Bibles Omitt this word, becuase it is not in the original:
International Standard Version (©2008)
For to which of the angels did God ever say, "You are my Son. Today I have become your Father"? Or again, "I will be his Father, and he will be my Son"?
GOD'S WORD® Translation (©1995)
God never said to any of his angels, "You are my Son. Today I have become your Father." And God never said to any of his angels, "I will be his Father, and he will be my Son."
Darby Bible Translation
For to which of the angels said he ever, Thou art my Son: this day have I begotten thee? and again, I will be to him for father, and he shall be to me for son?
Weymouth New Testament
For to which of the angels did God ever say, "My Son art Thou: I have this day become Thy Father;" and again, "I will be a Father to Him, and He shall be My Son"?
World English Bible
For to which of the angels did he say at any time, "You are my Son. Today have I become your father?" and again, "I will be to him a Father, and he will be to me a Son?"
With an exception to the Darby Bible (which still states that Jesus Christ is God's begotten son), all of these verse still point to the fact that Jesus Christ shares a unique relationship with His Father, that no other created being shares with Him. I won't pretend that I completely understand this mystical bond between them, but we can see that their relationship is unique and unlike that of any other being, and surely that counts for something. And to me (and this is just me talking), the use of begotten or the lack thereof doesn't change the context of the verse: Jesus Christ, in these verses, is still described as the Father's unique son.
There is another problem with the word beggoten and this is becuase it is not respectable way to use it with God!!
I'm not sure what you mean, please elaborate.
And i dont defend any bible and I can understand translation problems, but when it comes to such Important word which is KYE word I think we need to stop on such notice and investgate why many bible translations Omitted such Important word!?
I don't know what you mean by KYE word (do you mean keyword?). Please don't take this as an ad hom. attack, I just think that there should be as little communication error as possible.
As for the fact that they omitted the word "begotten", you can see from my short explanation above that the use of begotten or lack thereof in Heb. 1:5 doesn't change the context of the passage in my eyes, and it still points to the fact that Jesus Christ and the Father share a bond which is unique.
See in original scripts the word is UNIQUE which I totaly agree with becuase Jesus (pbuh) were UNIQUE as he is the only one who were Born from Mother without Father as Sign to all Man Kind!
As I have said, the use of unique or begotten to me doesn't change the meaning of the passage: begotten simply means that he is unlike any of God's other sons, as does unique.
I made google and found a lot of links Chrictians and non christians that talk about what RSV scgolars say about KJV bible google:
Grave defects in KJV bible
Sanitarium sent me the link from which you got your evidence from (or at least a site which contains evidence similar to yours, using the same sources). Here it is if anyone else wants to read it:
http://www.jamaat.net/bible/Bible1-3.html
I've discussed above how the use of begotten, unique or the like doesn't change the context of the passage, so I won't discuss it again here.
47 Translators bible scholars made KJV which were revised many times and still RSV bible scholars find what they described as grave defects, doesnt this stop us to think about what is going on!?
Where is Inspiration!?
I won't comment on this because I'm not a theologian, nor do I have a masters in Greek, Hebrew, Latin, Aramaic or any of the other languages the Bible has been written in, but I will say that I don't think that there are any significant defects in the KJV: as a matter of fact, the verses in the KJV all affirm the beliefs of Christians from the time and from hundreds of years before. But, again, this is only my opinion and I won't pretend to understand the entire situation.
I have a Question for you, Romans 3:23 says we are born full of Sins and of course Jesus (pbuh) came to die for us and for our Sins, which means that me as Muslim or Athiests or Jew who dont accept Jesus as God will also go to paradise right!?
If not right and I have to become christian to be saved then Jesus (pbuh) came to die for christians only, right!?
Regardless of the use of begotten, unique or any other adjective to describe the relationship between the Father and Jesus Christ, these verse clearly answers your question. John 14:6: "Jesus saith unto him, I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me". This verse shows that Jesus Christ is the
one and only way to the Father. Also, see this verse: Romans 10:9 "That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved." In answer to your question, Jesus Christ died for our sins and gave us the free gift of Grace, but to receive it, you must confess the Lord Jesus (in other translations, that "Jesus is Lord"), and believe that God raised him from the dead (which is, I might add, in direct contrast to the believe of Muslims that Jesus was not even crucified at all).
Questions similar to yours have been asked before, and to paraphrase them: "What about all the people who lived before Jesus or didn't know about Him?". The answer to that, I cannot say. There are two sides to it: there is the Biblically supported side which is summed up in Rom. 3:23, and the logically supported side which says that it isn't fair that only some people have the opportunity to receive faith, while others don't and are destined to abide in Hell. Some answers to this logical side include that the people may be literally born again into this world (i.e. reincarnation), and have the chance to receive grace in this world , or that their works may be judged in the afterlife and if they were pious, good people who believed in their God/gods and did their God/gods commandments, and they never had the chance to accept Jesus Christ into their hearts, then our God will take this into account (I think that this is similar to the Muslim belief of unbelievers who never had the chance to believe in the one true God).
But, for those who had their chance to accept Jesus Christ, the answer is clear: "I am the way, the truth, and the life: no man cometh unto the Father, but by me", and "If thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved."
And you you too
Kenan