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My theory about the "first day of the week"

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wavy

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Here is every instance where it is found in scripture along with the actual Greek (English words that do not appear in the Greek will be in italics):

(KJV)
Matthew 28:1
In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week [mian sabbaton], came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.

(KJV)
Mark 16:2
And very early in the morning the first day of the week [tes mias sabbaton], they came unto the sepulchre at the rising of the sun.

(KJV)
Luke 24:1
Now upon the first day of the week [mia ton sabbaton], very early in the morning, they came unto the sepulchre, bringing the spices which they had prepared, and certain others with them.

(KJV)
John 20:1
The first day of the week [mia ton sabbaton] cometh Mary Magdalene early, when it was yet dark, unto the sepulchre, and seeth the stone taken away from the sepulchre.

(KJV)
John 20:19
Then the same day at evening, being the first day of the week [te mia ton sabbaton], when the doors were shut where the disciples were assembled for fear of the Jews, came Jesus and stood in the midst, and saith unto them, Peace be unto you.

(KJV)
Acts 20:7
And upon the first day of the week [te mia ton sabbaton], when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul preached unto them, ready to depart on the morrow; and continued his speech until midnight.

(KJV)
1 Corinthians 16:2
Upon the first day of the week [kata mia sabbaton] let every one of you lay by him in store, as God hath prospered him, that there be no gatherings when I come.

Many believe this means "Sun Day", but we find that the word for "day" (emera) does not appear in the Greek.

The word for "first" in every instance in these scriptures is the Greek word mia, which means "one".

It is translated "one" 58 times out of it's 70 occurences (in the KJV) and only 8 times as "first", 7 of which are here (suspiciously) in these "Sun Day" scriptures and once in Titus 3:10.

As we can see, the Greek word for "week" is sabbaton, which literally means "sabbaths". The common Greek word for "first" is protos. Protos emera would have been a better way to communicate "first day", imo.

So if it is not talking about Sun Day, one might ask, then what day is it? The omer count to pentecost is to be completed when seventh sabbaths have passed (Leviticus 23:15). In Leviticus 23:15 of the Greek LXX the word "sabbaths" in the Hebrew is rendered as sabbaton. Pentecost is the next feast after unleavened bread.

Why is this significant? Isn't it interesting to realize that in every instance where we find "first day of the week" in English translations, the feast of unleavened bread or pentecost is the set timing?

In the gospels, the disciples were in the middle of unleavened bread after passover (which is when Christ died).

Consider this:

Matthew

Matthew 26:2
Ye know that after two days is the feast of the passover, and the Son of man is betrayed to be crucified.
...
Matthew 26:17
Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Yahshua, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?

Mark

Mark 14:1
After two days was the feast of the passover, and of unleavened bread: and the chief priests and the scribes sought how they might take him by craft, and put him to death.

Luke

Luke 22:1
Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover.

John

John 13:1
Now before the feast of the passover, when Yahshua knew that his hour was come that he should depart out of this world unto the Father, having loved his own which were in the world, he loved them unto the end.

Now regardless of whether or not he died on passover or the day after passover (there are different views on this that we won't get into), it is a must that he rose sometime during unleavened bread (which lasts 7 days, from the 15th to the 21st of Aviv with the passover on the 14th).

During the feast of unleavened bread, the count to pentecost must begin (whether one holds a lunar sabbatarian viewpoint like myself, or believes that the "morrow after the sabbath" in Leviticus is the 15th of Aviv or if you believe in a Saturday sabbath and believe that is the sabbath it was speaking of; but these controversies are also something we won't get into). It is inevitable and mathematically impossible for it not to be unleavened bread when the omer count begins.

When the women and the disciples came to the tomb, it had to be unleavened bread (whether you believe he was in the grave for 3 twenty-four hour periods or not, but again, that is another subject of controversy).

Continuing:

Acts

Acts 20:6
And we sailed away from Philippi after the days of unleavened bread, and came unto them to Troas in five days; where we abode seven days

1 Corinthians

1 Corinthians 5:6
Your glorying is not good. Know ye not that a little leaven leaveneth the whole lump?
1 Corinthians 5:7
Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye are unleavened. For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for us:
1 Corinthians 5:8
Therefore let us keep the feast, not with old leaven, neither with the leaven of malice and wickedness; but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.
...
1 Corinthians 16:8
But I will tarry at Ephesus until Pentecost.


As far as the 5th chapter of 1 Corinthians reference, I believe he spoke in that manner because it was the time of those feasts and they were actually keeping them, but even if that is not true, it doesn't matter. He mentions pentecost which means it must have been close to pentecost and his mind was set on it (which means the omer count had to have begun). Paul would gather collections from the different congregations and would bring them to Jerusalem (that is what he is speaking of in 1 Corinthians 16:2). That is why he was going to stay in Ephesus until pentecost because when it came, he would go to Jerusalem (according to the command of the law, where all the males were commanded to appear before Yahweh in Jerusalem, which is what was going on in the second chapter of Acts, if you didn't know).

This cannot be coincidence. Not to me. So I judge that all these references to the "first day of the week" is not talking about Sun Day, but is saying "one of the weeks/sabbaths [as the period between one sabbath and another]" during the count to pentecost.

The authors were communicating any of the days of the sabbaton/week when the events mentioned in these scriptures occured (within the 50 days of the count to pentecost).
 
wavy said:
Here is every instance where it is found in scripture along with the actual Greek (English words that do not appear in the Greek will be in italics):

(KJV)
Matthew 28:1
In the end of the sabbath, as it began to dawn toward the first day of the week [mian sabbaton], came Mary Magdalene and the other Mary to see the sepulchre.

(KJV)
Mark 16:2
And very early in the morning the first day of the week [tes mias sabbaton], they came unto the sepulchre at the rising of the sun.

(KJV)
Luke 24:1
Now upon the first day of the week [mia ton sabbaton], very early in the morning, they came unto the sepulchre, bringing the spices which they had prepared, and certain others with them.

(KJV)
John 20:1
The first day of the week [mia ton sabbaton] cometh Mary Magdalene early, when it was yet dark, unto the sepulchre, and seeth the stone taken away from the sepulchre.

(KJV)
John 20:19
Then the same day at evening, being the first day of the week [te mia ton sabbaton], when the doors were shut where the disciples were assembled for fear of the Jews, came Jesus and stood in the midst, and saith unto them, Peace be unto you.

(KJV)
Acts 20:7
And upon the first day of the week [te mia ton sabbaton], when the disciples came together to break bread, Paul preached unto them, ready to depart on the morrow; and continued his speech until midnight.

(KJV)
1 Corinthians 16:2
Upon the first day of the week [kata mia sabbaton] let every one of you lay by him in store, as God hath prospered him, that there be no gatherings when I come.

Many believe this means "Sun Day", but we find that the word for "day" (emera) does not appear in the Greek.

The word for "first" in every instance in these scriptures is the Greek word mia, which means "one".

It is translated "one" 58 times out of it's 70 occurences (in the KJV) and only 8 times as "first", 7 of which are here (suspiciously) in these "Sun Day" scriptures and once in Titus 3:10.

As we can see, the Greek word for "week" is sabbaton, which literally means "sabbaths". The common Greek word for first is protos. Protos emera would have been a better way to communicate "first day", imo.

So if it is not talking about Sun Day, one might ask, then what day is it? The omer count to pentecost is to be completed when seventh sabbaths have passed (Leviticus 23:15). In Leviticus 23:15 of the Greek LXX the word "sabbaths" in the Hebrew is rendered as sabbaton. Pentecost is the next feast after unleavened bread.

Why is this significant? Isn't it interesting to realize that in every instance where we find "first day of the week" in English translations, the feast of unleavened bread or pentecost is the set timing?

In the gospels, the disciples were in the middle of unleavened bread after passover (which is when Christ died).

Consider this:

Matthew

Matthew 26:2
Ye know that after two days is the feast of the passover, and the Son of man is betrayed to be crucified.
...
Matthew 26:17
Now the first day of the feast of unleavened bread the disciples came to Yahshua, saying unto him, Where wilt thou that we prepare for thee to eat the passover?

Mark

Mark 14:1
After two days was the feast of the passover, and of unleavened bread: and the chief priests and the scribes sought how they might take him by craft, and put him to death.

Luke

Luke 22:1
Now the feast of unleavened bread drew nigh, which is called the Passover.

John

John 13:1
Now before the feast of the passover, when Yahshua knew that his hour was come that he should depart out of this world unto the Father, having loved his own which were in the world, he loved them unto the end.

Now regardless of whether or not he died on passover or the day after passover (there are different views on this that we won't get into), it is a must that he rose sometime during unleavened bread (which lasts 7 days, from the 15th to the 21st of Aviv with the passover on the 14th).

During the feast of unleavened bread, the count to pentecost must begin (whether one holds a lunar sabbatarian viewpoint like myself, or believes that the "morrow after the sabbath" in Leviticus is the 15th of Aviv or if you believe in a Saturday sabbath and believe that is the sabbath it was speaking of; but these controversies are also something we won't get into). It is inevitable and mathematically impossible for it not to be unleavened bread when the omer count begins.

When the women and the disciples came to the tomb, it had to be unleavened bread (whether you believe he was in the grave for 3 twenty-four hour periods or not, but again, that is another subject of controversy).

Continuing:

Acts

Acts 20:6
And we sailed away from Philippi after the days of unleavened bread, and came unto them to Troas in five days; where we abode seven days

1 Corinthians

1 Corinthians 5:6
Your glorying is not good. Know ye not that a little leaven leaveneth the whole lump?
1 Corinthians 5:7
Purge out therefore the old leaven, that ye may be a new lump, as ye are unleavened. For even Christ our passover is sacrificed for us:
1 Corinthians 5:8
Therefore let us keep the feast, not with old leaven, neither with the leaven of malice and wickedness; but with the unleavened bread of sincerity and truth.
...
1 Corinthians 16:8
But I will tarry at Ephesus until Pentecost.


As far as the 5th chapter of 1 Corinthians reference, I believe he spoke in that manner because it was the time of those feasts and they were actually keeping them, but even if that is not true, it doesn't matter. He mentions pentecost which means it must have been close to pentecost and his mind was set on it (which means the omer count had to have begun). Paul would gather collections from the different congregations and would bring them to Jerusalem (that is what he is speaking of in 1 Corinthians 16:2). That is why he was going to stay in Ephesus until pentecost because when it came, he would go to Jerusalem (according to the command of the law, where all the males were commanded to appear before Yahweh in Jerusalem, which is what was going on in the second chapter of Acts, if you didn't know).

This cannot be coincidence. Not to me. So I judge that all these references to the "first day of the week" is not talking about Sun Day, but is saying "one of the weeks/sabbaths [as the period between one sabbath and another]" during the count to pentecost.

The authors were communicating any of the days of the sabbaton/week when the events mentioned in these scriptures occured (within the 50 days of the count to pentecost).

Are you still stuck on the law that Jesus fulfilled for us? :o It's a waste of time since Jesus replaced the law with his blood. We now come to him for rest, atonement, and righeousness. And that's why Paul told us to avoid foolish quarrels about the law. If you believed him, then it wouldn't matter which day of the week you should do anything! "Ye of little faith." :roll:
 
Heidi said:
Are you still stuck on the law that Jesus fulfilled for us? :o

This whole entire thread has nothing to do with the subject of the law. Secondly, even if it did, what you say here is not found in scripture.

Unless, of course, you can show me where scripture says "Jesus fulfilled the law for us".

Heidi said:
It's a waste of time since Jesus replaced the law with his blood. We now come to him for rest, atonement, and righeousness. And that's why Paul told us to avoid foolish quarrels about the law. If you believed him, then it wouldn't matter which day of the week you should do anything! "Ye of little faith." :roll:

Not in scripture. But again, this thread has nothing to do with the law. I can see by your response that you think this is a sabbath/sunday dilemma. However, if you read, (which based on your comments I don't doubt you did not) you will know that this has nothing to do with that.
 
Heidi gets on the defensive even if she has no idea what someone is talking about. Case in point. :roll:
 
wavy said:
Heidi said:
Are you still stuck on the law that Jesus fulfilled for us? :o

This whole entire thread has nothing to do with the subject of the law. Secondly, even if it did, what you say here is not found in scripture.

Unless, of course, you can show me where scripture says "Jesus fulfilled the law for us".

Heidi said:
It's a waste of time since Jesus replaced the law with his blood. We now come to him for rest, atonement, and righeousness. And that's why Paul told us to avoid foolish quarrels about the law. If you believed him, then it wouldn't matter which day of the week you should do anything! "Ye of little faith." :roll:

Not in scripture. But again, this thread has nothing to do with the law. I can see by your response that you think this is a sabbath/sunday dilemma. However, if you read, (which based on your comments I don't doubt you did not) you will know that this has nothing to do with that.

If you don't know where scripture said that Jesus fulfilled the law for us then you're showing your huge ignorance of the bible, friend. Furthermore, if you cared about what Jesus said, you would look it up for yourself.

Matthew 5:17,"Do not think that I have come to abolish the Law or the Prophets; I have not come to abolish them but to fulfill them."

Romans 13:8, "Let no debt remain outstanding except the continuing debt to love one another, for he who loves his fellow man has fulfilled the law. The commandments, 'Do not commit adultery, 'Do not murder', 'Do not steal', 'Do not covet', and whatever other commandment there may be, are summed up in this one rule: 'Love your neighbor as yourself.'. Love does no harm to its neighbor. Therefore love is the fulfillment of the law".

It's right there in print. Paul included all of the commandments that Jesus fulfilled which includes the Sabbath law. Once we come to Jesus for rest, which is the Sabbath (explained in Hebrews 4:1-9), His love for us and in us fulfills the law.

So until you even understand what Jesus did for us, you are still under the old covenant like the Jews and you will not come to Jesus for rest but look to a day of the week for rest instead. You also don't understand what Paul means in Colossians 2 when he says that the old covenant is just a shadow of what Jesus would do with his blood, not the realities themselves. The OT laws pointed to the fulfillment of them by Jesus Christ.
 
I also want to add that in Ephesians 2:15, {Pauls says, "For he himself is our peace, who has made the two one and has destroyed the barrier, dividing the wall of hostility, by abolishing, in his flesh, the law with its commandments."

Now that doesn't mean that the law itself is abolished because the bible doesn't contradict itself. it means that we are no longer slaves to the law, but slaves to Christ who fulfilled them for us. You either come to Christ for rest or you're still a slave to the law. It's that simple.

Romans 6:14, "For sin shall not be your master, because you are not under law but under grace."

Galatians 3:25, "Now that faith has come, we are no longer under the supervision of the law."

Galatians 5:18, "But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under law."

Galatians 2: 21, "I do not set aside the grace of God, for if righteousness could be gained through the law, Christ died for nothing!"

The last phrase says it all. So again, avoid foolish quarrels over the law and come to Christ for rest. The you can worship him everyday of the week which automatically fulfills the Sabbath. :biggrin
 
Heidi said:
If you don't know where scripture said that Jesus fulfilled the law for us then you're showing your huge ignorance of the bible, friend. Furthermore, if you cared about what Jesus said, you would look it up for yourself.

I have read the NT many times, Heidi. I have made two threads centered soley around this passage on this very forum. But they don't say what you say they say.

In Matthew 5:17 it says he will fulfill the law and the prophets (people always want to leave out the prophets). I am not going to go in depth with this scripture with you, Heidi (no offense, but I have a feeling it would be a waste of time).

But in brief, to "fulfill" and "destroy" are Hebraic expressions meaning to "interpret correctly" and "misinterpret". If I had said something like "thou shalt not kill also applies to killing insects", a rabbi in the first century would have said, "You are destroying the law!!!".

It's evident from the next verses. As he quoted the scripture, he said things, that at first glance, seem to contradict the scripture (which he cannot do, or he'd be found a liar and in violation of Deuteronomy 13:1-5). He was saying that his interpretations were correct, and that he wasn't really violating the law or prophets (as some people say he was specifically doing).

Secondly, even if you don't believe this, you couldn't take it as "he fulfilled it for us". Why? One, the text doesn't say that, and two, based on your logic, he fulfilled the prophets also and replaced them with his blood.

As far as your Romans scripture, you actually contradicted yourself and destroyed your message. If he fulfilled it "for us", why does it say we must love one another to fulfill the law? According to you, we don't. Christ already did it.

Heidi said:
It's right there in print. Paul included all of the commandments that Jesus fulfilled which includes the Sabbath law. Once we come to Jesus for rest, which is the Sabbath (explained in Hebrews 4:1-9), His love for us and in us fulfills the law.

So again, why must you love some one if love is commanded in the law and he fulfilled "all of the commandments", according to your [erroneous] logic of what "fulfill" means?

You keep bringing up the sabbath too. I never brought up the sabbath so what you think Hebrews explains in chapter 4 is irrelevant. No offense.

Heidi said:
So until you even understand what Jesus did for us, you are still under the old covenant like the Jews and you will not come to Jesus for rest but look to a day of the week for rest instead. You also don't understand what Paul means in Colossians 2 when he says that the old covenant is just a shadow of what Jesus would do with his blood, not the realities themselves. The OT laws pointed to the fulfillment of them by Jesus Christ.

Anyway, I'll answer your next post and then I'll leave this alone as you have taken this off topic, and I don't have time to argue with you as you build up strawmans to try to prove that you can throw them down and prove my "ignorance of the bible".
 
Heidi said:
I also want to add that in Ephesians 2:15, {Pauls says, "For he himself is our peace, who has made the two one and has destroyed the barrier, dividing the wall of hostility, by abolishing, in his flesh, the law with its commandments."

Now that doesn't mean that the law itself is abolished because the bible doesn't contradict itself. it means that we are no longer slaves to the law, but slaves to Christ who fulfilled them for us. You either come to Christ for rest or you're still a slave to the law. It's that simple.

This passage is not talking about what is called the torah of Moses, or Pentateuch anyway.

But regardless you keep bringing up "rest", and keep using that false logic of what "fulfill" means as it pertains to all scripture (not just the law).

Heidi said:
Romans 6:14, "For sin shall not be your master, because you are not under law but under grace."

Galatians 3:25, "Now that faith has come, we are no longer under the supervision of the law."

Galatians 5:18, "But if you are led by the Spirit, you are not under law."

Galatians 2: 21, "I do not set aside the grace of God, for if righteousness could be gained through the law, Christ died for nothing!"

The last phrase says it all. So again, avoid foolish quarrels over the law and come to Christ for rest. The you can worship him everyday of the week which automatically fulfills the Sabbath. :biggrin

Being "under law" has nothing to do with whether or not you obey it. But anyway, as you keep bringing up the sabbath and this "fulfill" logic of yours, I'm done with this conversation. Please keep things on topic. These red herrings show something about character and willingness to either listen or soundly dispute. None of which you have done. This has nothing to do with the law (you starting "quarreling" over it first) or the sabbath commandment.

Peace.
 
There you go again causing trouble, wavy. Now you have Heidi off-side with you. You just never learn, do you? That will teach you to raise offensive topics like 'my theory of the first-day' . . .! :o
 
Nice work wavy.

Off topic:
Romans 8:4 That the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us, who walk not after the flesh, but after the Spirit.

Oh wow. If Jesus already fulfilled the law, how come the above says the righteousness of the law might be fulfilled in us who walk according to the spirit?

I agree with you wavy. Jesus didn't destroy or abolish the law but exposed and interpreted it into the two main commandments of love ..loving God with everything you have and loving your neighbor as yourself.
 
Exodus 20:6
And shewing mercy unto thousands of them that love me, and keep my commandments.

Deuteronomy 11:1
Therefore thou shalt love יהוה thy Elohim, and keep his charge, and his statutes, and his judgments, and his commandments, alway.

John 14:15
If ye love me, keep my commandments.

1 John 5:2
By this we know that we love the children of Elohim, when we love יהוה, and keep his commandments.
 

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