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Philippians 2 and the Person of Jesus Christ

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Philippians 2 and the Person of Jesus Christ

In this passage from Philippians chapter 2, we have one of the clearest Accounts in the Bible, on the Person of the Lord Jesus Christ. We read of His absolute Deity from eternity past, “in the very nature of God”, and was coequal with the Father. Then we read, that at The Incarnation, when Jesus Christ was Conceived in the womb of the Virgin Mary, that He took on “the very nature of a servant [human]”, thereby giving up for a short time, His equality with the Father. Jesus Christ walked this earth as a Human Person, Who was fully God and fully human, without any sin, and became, “ὁ θεάνθρωπος”, which is, “The God-Man”. We read of Jesus Christ as being “Highly Exalted” by God the Father, and is Yahweh.

“Have this mind in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: who, being in the very nature of God, counted it not a prize to be on an equality with God, but emptied himself, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in the likeness of men; and being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, becoming obedient [even] unto death, yea, the death of the cross. Wherefore also God highly exalted him, and gave unto him the name which is above every name; that in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of [things] in heaven and [things] on earth and [things] under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.” (Philippians 2:5-11)

Verse 6 in the Greek is, “ος εν μορφη θεου υπαρχων”, literally, “Who in the very nature of God existing”. The participle “υπαρχων” is in the masculine singular, and present tense. The KJV, NKJV, etc, render it as “being”.

To when does this “υπαρχων” refer? Are we to accept the meaning as suggested by the margin reading of the 1881 Revised Version, “Gr. being originally”, which is what Dr Thayer says in his Greek lexicon. But, this is very much misleading, as it strongly suggests that, Jesus Christ “was in the nature of God before His Incarnation”, and “gave this up”, when He became Man. This is not what the Greek says here, nor, what the Apostle Paul is meaning. “υπαρχων”, does have the meaning of, “to be already in existence”. But, this is not all that it means, as it does also include “continuation”.

Acts 7:55, “But he, being (υπαρχων) full of the Holy Spirit”
Acts 14:8, “being (υπαρχων) a cripple from his mother's womb”
Galatians 2:14, “If thou, being (υπαρχων) a Jew”

In each of these examples, past and continued actions are meant.

How are we to understand the Greek “μορφὴ ϑεοῦ”, translated in many English Versions as “form”, and in the NIV, as “very nature”. Do we understand this word, as Professor Danker does, “μορφὴ ϑεοῦ signifies a divine air/demeanor Phil 2:6, in contrast to μορφὴ δουλοῦ slavish demeanor vs. 7” (The concise Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament, p.250). And, the much used Greek lexicon by Dr J H Thayer, “the form by which a person or thing strikes the vision; the external appearance”. Thayer was a Unitarian and rejected the Deity of Jesus Christ. “μορφη” is used 3 times in the New Testament, in Philippians 2:6 and 7 (form of a servant, KJV), and Mark 16:12. Then, we have other Greek works, that define “μορφη”, as “being in the nature of God” (Edward Robinson). And, “very nature” (Mounce, Expository Dictionary). So, which definition is the correct one? To the Jehovah’s Witnesses, for example, the former is what they would accept. To those who believe that Jesus is GOD, the latter is correct. Both, however, cannot be right.

I will show that the correct meaning of the word in the passage in Philippians 2, is found in the other use of it, in Mark 16:12. Here it reads that Jesus appeared, “εν ετερα μορφη”. Firstly, of the adjective, “ετερα”, which here means, “of another kind, different”. After His Resurrection, the Body of the Lord Jesus Christ was “essentially transformed”, as He could disappear (Luke 24:31). He could walk through closed doors (John 20:19). Though His “outward appearance” was exactly the same after the Resurrection. This is very clear from Jesus’ Road to Emmaus conversation with the two he walked with, in Luke 24. In verse 16, when Jesus had joined the two men, it says, “But their eyes were prevented from recognizing Him”. And in verse 31, “And their eyes were opened, and they recognized him. And he vanished from their sight”. It is clear the God had here “prevented” these two from “recognizing” Jesus. This would not have been necessary, if Jesus’ “outward appearance”, had changed in any way. It is clear from this passage, which is the same time of Mark’s account, that “μορφη” means “essential”, and not “outward”. This is exactly what Paul means in Philippians.

Next we have, “οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο”, = “considered it not a thing to be grasped”.

In the original sense, “ἁρπαγμὸν”, has the meaning of “the act of seizing”, hence the reading of Versions like the KJV, etc. However, the noun can also be used in a passive sense, rather than active, with the meaning, “to be grasped”, or “held on to”. This phrase, “οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο”, must be taken with, “τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ”, which is translated, “to be equal with God”. “ἴσα” is in the neuter plural, and used as an adverb, with the meaning, “on equal terms, without advantage to either side”.

Thus far we have, “Jesus Christ, Who from eternity past, existing in the very nature as God, did not consider His being on equality with the Father, something to be held on to”. This is clearly seen from a couple of examples, as in Hebrews 2:7, 9, “You made Him for a little while lower than the angels; you have crowned Him with glory and honor…But we see him who for a little while was made lower than the angels, namely Jesus, crowned with glory and honor because of the suffering of death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone” “ἠλαττωμένον”, means to “to make lower than, to be inferior to”. Because Jesus, the eternal God, “became flesh”, and suffered on the cross. In this sense He was “lower”, than even the angels. This was only “for a little while”, for the duration of Jesus’ Incarnation, while on earth. Just before Jesus’ Resurrection and Ascension, He says to the Father: “And now You, Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world existed”. It was the “Glory” that He from all eternity had with the Father, thus making Him COEQUAL, is what Jesus did not “hold on to”, when He became the God-Man.

We then have, “ἀλλὰ ἑαυτὸν ἐκένωσεν μορφὴν δούλου λαβών”. literally, “but Himself emptied the very nature of a bond-servant having taken”. This “emptying” that Paul speaks of, is because Jesus Christ “took upon Himself”, the “very nature of a bond-servant”. The “emptying” has nothing to do with “μορφὴ ϑεοῦ”, which we have seen from, “υπαρχων”, is a continued existence. “ἐκένωσεν”, is from, “κενόω”, literally, “to empty”. The one Who does the “emptying”, is Jesus Christ “Himself”. What is “κενόω” used here for? There is a passage in the Greek writer, Herodotus, where he uses this verb, as “stripped” (see, LSJ, Greek lexicon). The meaning of “strip” here, as defined in Webster’s, “to divest of honors, privileges, or functions”. Clearly from this passage in Philippians 2, we read of Jesus Christ as “stripping Himself of the honor and privilege”, that He had with the Father from all eternity, by becoming the God-Man. As Weymouth’s New Testament rightly reads, “He stripped Himself of His glory”. God cannot cease to be God, and Jesus Christ, Who IS Almighty God, cannot for any time, not be God! “μορφὴν δούλου”, is in the same way “μορφὴ ϑεοῦ” is understood, as the “very nature” of a human, except sin. One Person, Jesus Christ, verse 5, Two “natures”, God and Man, at His Incarnation, verse 6-7.
 
cont...

Next, “εν ομοιωματι ανθρωπων γενομενος”, that is, “being born in the likeness of man”. What does Paul mean here, by “likeness”? This does not mean that the “human nature” of Jesus Christ, was unreal, and just a phantom, as some in the early Church taught. To understand what this means, we can look at another verse in Paul, Romans 8:3, “For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God, sending his own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh”. Same Greek word, “ὁμοίωμα”, (to resemble). The “human nature” of Jesus Christ, is very real, but, it is without any sin, which is not true of any human being ever born. In Matthew 1:16, we read, “Mary, of whom was born Jesus, who is called Christ”. The Greek is very important, “ἐξ ἧς”, literally, “out of HER”, feminine, singular, which shows that Mary was the biological “mother” of Jesus Christ, Who actually derived His “human nature” from her. This is also seen in Luke 1:35, “therefore also that Holy Child Who shall be born of thee (ἐκ σοῦ, singular, “out of you”) shall be called the Son of God”

In the Greek, Paul is very careful in how he writes. He says, “κατεκρινε την αμαρτιαν εν τη σαρκ”, “condemned sin in the flesh”. Had he written, “κατεκρινε την αμαρτιαν την εν τη σαρκ”, this would have made sin in the flesh of Jesus Christ. It is clear from both these passages taken together, what Paul does mean when he says, “in the likeness of man”.

“And being found in fashion as a man”, Weymouth translates, “And being recognized as truly human”. “σχῆμα”, here translated as “fashion”, is more than just the “outward appearance”. It also is used for, “character, characteristic propetry”, that which makes a “real human”. When those who lived with Jesus looked at Him, they “saw” a real human being like themselves. But, in His One Person, He was the God-Man, 100% God and 100% Man, except for sin.

Then we have Jesus’ “submission” to God the Father, “He humbled Himself by becoming obedient to the point of death, even death on a cross”. This “obedience”, is “μέχρῐ”, “till the end of His life”, “as long as”. At which point in time, that “submission” to the Father was ended. This is what the passage in Hebrew 2 says, that it was for “a little while”, that Jesus was “made lower than the angels”, for the duration of His Incarnate Life on earth.

The next three verses are to be taken together, “Therefore God has highly exalted Him and bestowed on Him the Name that is above every name, so that at the Name of Jesus every knee should bow, in heaven and on earth and under the earth, and every tongue confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father”

The Name Jesus was given to Mary by, the Father, through the angel Gabriel (Luke 1:31). His Name is Highly exalted above all other names. So Great is Jesus Christ, that He is to receive all the Praise, Worship and Adoration, that is for Almighty God Himself. The words that Paul uses here, for The Lord Jesus Christ, and from the Old Testament Prophet Isaiah:

“Declare and present it. Yes, let them take counsel together. Who has shown this from ancient time? Who has declared it of old? Haven't I, Yahweh? There is no other God besides Me, a Just God and a Saviour; There is no one besides Me."Look to Me, and be saved, all the ends of the earth; for I am God, and there is no other. I have sworn by Myself, the word has gone out of my mouth in righteousness, and will not return, that to Me every knee shall bow, every tongue shall take an oath.” (45:21-23)

In this passage, Yahweh is the Speaker, Who says that He is The Saviour, and there is no other besides Him. In Luke 2:11, we read, “For there is born to you this day in the city of David a Saviour, who is Christ the Lord”. In Titus 2:13 we read, “looking for the blessed hope and appearance of the glory of our Great God and Saviour Jesus Christ”. In John 4:42, Jesus Christ is called “The Saviour of the World”. The fact that Jesus Christ IS The Saviour of the world, as acknowledged by all, and that in Isaiah He is called Yahweh.

Further, the words in Isaiah are Spoken by Yahweh Himself, to Whom “every knee shall bow, every tongue shall take an oath.”. The Apostle Paul has taken these words from this passage, and directly applied them to The Lord Jesus Christ, thereby identifying Jesus Christ as Yahweh. It would be blasphemy for Paul to have done this, if Jesus Christ Himself is not Almighty God.

Interestingly, the Jehovah’s Witnesses publication of the Emphatic Diaglott, which is a Greek-English New Testament, has for verse 10, “in order that in the NAME of Jesus Every Knee should bend, of those in heaven, and of those on earth, and of those beneath”, a cross-reference to the passage in Isaiah 45:23! Clear evidence even in the JW’s publication, to the fact that Jesus Christ IS Yahweh.
 
Philippians 2 and the Person of Jesus Christ

In this passage from Philippians chapter 2, we have one of the clearest Accounts in the Bible, on the Person of the Lord Jesus Christ. We read of His absolute Deity from eternity past, “in the very nature of God”, and was coequal with the Father. Then we read, that at The Incarnation, when Jesus Christ was Conceived in the womb of the Virgin Mary, that He took on “the very nature of a servant [human]”, thereby giving up for a short time, His equality with the Father. Jesus Christ walked this earth as a Human Person, Who was fully God and fully human, without any sin, and became, “ὁ θεάνθρωπος”, which is, “The God-Man”. We read of Jesus Christ as being “Highly Exalted” by God the Father, and is Yahweh.

“Have this mind in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: who, being in the very nature of God, counted it not a prize to be on an equality with God, but emptied himself, taking the very nature of a servant, being made in the likeness of men; and being found in fashion as a man, he humbled himself, becoming obedient [even] unto death, yea, the death of the cross. Wherefore also God highly exalted him, and gave unto him the name which is above every name; that in the name of Jesus every knee should bow, of [things] in heaven and [things] on earth and [things] under the earth, and that every tongue should confess that Jesus Christ is Lord, to the glory of God the Father.” (Philippians 2:5-11)

Verse 6 in the Greek is, “ος εν μορφη θεου υπαρχων”, literally, “Who in the very nature of God existing”. The participle “υπαρχων” is in the masculine singular, and present tense. The KJV, NKJV, etc, render it as “being”.

To when does this “υπαρχων” refer? Are we to accept the meaning as suggested by the margin reading of the 1881 Revised Version, “Gr. being originally”, which is what Dr Thayer says in his Greek lexicon. But, this is very much misleading, as it strongly suggests that, Jesus Christ “was in the nature of God before His Incarnation”, and “gave this up”, when He became Man. This is not what the Greek says here, nor, what the Apostle Paul is meaning. “υπαρχων”, does have the meaning of, “to be already in existence”. But, this is not all that it means, as it does also include “continuation”.

Acts 7:55, “But he, being (υπαρχων) full of the Holy Spirit”
Acts 14:8, “being (υπαρχων) a cripple from his mother's womb”
Galatians 2:14, “If thou, being (υπαρχων) a Jew”

In each of these examples, past and continued actions are meant.

How are we to understand the Greek “μορφὴ ϑεοῦ”, translated in many English Versions as “form”, and in the NIV, as “very nature”. Do we understand this word, as Professor Danker does, “μορφὴ ϑεοῦ signifies a divine air/demeanor Phil 2:6, in contrast to μορφὴ δουλοῦ slavish demeanor vs. 7” (The concise Greek-English lexicon of the New Testament, p.250). And, the much used Greek lexicon by Dr J H Thayer, “the form by which a person or thing strikes the vision; the external appearance”. Thayer was a Unitarian and rejected the Deity of Jesus Christ. “μορφη” is used 3 times in the New Testament, in Philippians 2:6 and 7 (form of a servant, KJV), and Mark 16:12. Then, we have other Greek works, that define “μορφη”, as “being in the nature of God” (Edward Robinson). And, “very nature” (Mounce, Expository Dictionary). So, which definition is the correct one? To the Jehovah’s Witnesses, for example, the former is what they would accept. To those who believe that Jesus is GOD, the latter is correct. Both, however, cannot be right.

I will show that the correct meaning of the word in the passage in Philippians 2, is found in the other use of it, in Mark 16:12. Here it reads that Jesus appeared, “εν ετερα μορφη”. Firstly, of the adjective, “ετερα”, which here means, “of another kind, different”. After His Resurrection, the Body of the Lord Jesus Christ was “essentially transformed”, as He could disappear (Luke 24:31). He could walk through closed doors (John 20:19). Though His “outward appearance” was exactly the same after the Resurrection. This is very clear from Jesus’ Road to Emmaus conversation with the two he walked with, in Luke 24. In verse 16, when Jesus had joined the two men, it says, “But their eyes were prevented from recognizing Him”. And in verse 31, “And their eyes were opened, and they recognized him. And he vanished from their sight”. It is clear the God had here “prevented” these two from “recognizing” Jesus. This would not have been necessary, if Jesus’ “outward appearance”, had changed in any way. It is clear from this passage, which is the same time of Mark’s account, that “μορφη” means “essential”, and not “outward”. This is exactly what Paul means in Philippians.

Next we have, “οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο”, = “considered it not a thing to be grasped”.

In the original sense, “ἁρπαγμὸν”, has the meaning of “the act of seizing”, hence the reading of Versions like the KJV, etc. However, the noun can also be used in a passive sense, rather than active, with the meaning, “to be grasped”, or “held on to”. This phrase, “οὐχ ἁρπαγμὸν ἡγήσατο”, must be taken with, “τὸ εἶναι ἴσα θεῷ”, which is translated, “to be equal with God”. “ἴσα” is in the neuter plural, and used as an adverb, with the meaning, “on equal terms, without advantage to either side”.

Thus far we have, “Jesus Christ, Who from eternity past, existing in the very nature as God, did not consider His being on equality with the Father, something to be held on to”. This is clearly seen from a couple of examples, as in Hebrews 2:7, 9, “You made Him for a little while lower than the angels; you have crowned Him with glory and honor…But we see him who for a little while was made lower than the angels, namely Jesus, crowned with glory and honor because of the suffering of death, so that by the grace of God he might taste death for everyone” “ἠλαττωμένον”, means to “to make lower than, to be inferior to”. Because Jesus, the eternal God, “became flesh”, and suffered on the cross. In this sense He was “lower”, than even the angels. This was only “for a little while”, for the duration of Jesus’ Incarnation, while on earth. Just before Jesus’ Resurrection and Ascension, He says to the Father: “And now You, Father, glorify Me together with Yourself, with the glory which I had with You before the world existed”. It was the “Glory” that He from all eternity had with the Father, thus making Him COEQUAL, is what Jesus did not “hold on to”, when He became the God-Man.

We then have, “ἀλλὰ ἑαυτὸν ἐκένωσεν μορφὴν δούλου λαβών”. literally, “but Himself emptied the very nature of a bond-servant having taken”. This “emptying” that Paul speaks of, is because Jesus Christ “took upon Himself”, the “very nature of a bond-servant”. The “emptying” has nothing to do with “μορφὴ ϑεοῦ”, which we have seen from, “υπαρχων”, is a continued existence. “ἐκένωσεν”, is from, “κενόω”, literally, “to empty”. The one Who does the “emptying”, is Jesus Christ “Himself”. What is “κενόω” used here for? There is a passage in the Greek writer, Herodotus, where he uses this verb, as “stripped” (see, LSJ, Greek lexicon). The meaning of “strip” here, as defined in Webster’s, “to divest of honors, privileges, or functions”. Clearly from this passage in Philippians 2, we read of Jesus Christ as “stripping Himself of the honor and privilege”, that He had with the Father from all eternity, by becoming the God-Man. As Weymouth’s New Testament rightly reads, “He stripped Himself of His glory”. God cannot cease to be God, and Jesus Christ, Who IS Almighty God, cannot for any time, not be God! “μορφὴν δούλου”, is in the same way “μορφὴ ϑεοῦ” is understood, as the “very nature” of a human, except sin. One Person, Jesus Christ, verse 5, Two “natures”, God and Man, at His Incarnation, verse 6-7.
I have not found anywhere in the Bible where God inspired men to write down that Jesus is God. It always says Jesus is the only begotten Son of God or he is, the Christ the son of the living God, etc. In fact John said at John 20:30, 31 that everything he was inspired to write was to convince people that Jesus is the Christ the son of God, not God. That's what I believe, that Jesus is the only begotten Son of God. I understand people have a right to their interpretation of the scriptures but I don't trust my eternal life to any imperfect humans interpretation. It's fine for them, or him\her, etc whoever comes up with those interpretations but I don't follow imperfect human beings and I think interpretation belongs to God. So if a scripture like John 20:17 tells me that after Jesus Christ resurrection he said he has a Father and God that is his apostles and disciples Father and God, I believe that. I can see for myself that Jesus isn't saying he is his apostles and disciples Father and God but someone else is their Father and God.

At Philippians 2:6 people have said to me that this scripture proves that Jesus was or is equal to God. However I keep verse 6 of Philippians chapter 2 in context with Philippians 2:2-5 because here at Philippians 2:2-6 the apostle was teaching or trying to teach the Philippian christians humbleness. He was telling each individual Philippian christian that they should think their fellow brother was superior to them at Philippians 2:2-4 then in verse 5 he told the Philippian christians to have the same thinking of humbleness that Jesus Christ had. Not that he thought himself equal to God but instead, even though Jesus was in God's form, he never snatched at the idea he was equal to God. This humility that Jesus is shown to be exercising here, the apostle was teaching the Philippian christians to follow the greatest example of humility when Jesus stating that he never thought of himself equal to God even though he was in God's form.
 
I have not found anywhere in the Bible where God inspired men to write down that Jesus is God. It always says Jesus is the only begotten Son of God or he is, the Christ the son of the living God, etc. In fact John said at John 20:30, 31 that everything he was inspired to write was to convince people that Jesus is the Christ the son of God, not God. That's what I believe, that Jesus is the only begotten Son of God. I understand people have a right to their interpretation of the scriptures but I don't trust my eternal life to any imperfect humans interpretation. It's fine for them, or him\her, etc whoever comes up with those interpretations but I don't follow imperfect human beings and I think interpretation belongs to God. So if a scripture like John 20:17 tells me that after Jesus Christ resurrection he said he has a Father and God that is his apostles and disciples Father and God, I believe that. I can see for myself that Jesus isn't saying he is his apostles and disciples Father and God but someone else is their Father and God.

At Philippians 2:6 people have said to me that this scripture proves that Jesus was or is equal to God. However I keep verse 6 of Philippians chapter 2 in context with Philippians 2:2-5 because here at Philippians 2:2-6 the apostle was teaching or trying to teach the Philippian christians humbleness. He was telling each individual Philippian christian that they should think their fellow brother was superior to them at Philippians 2:2-4 then in verse 5 he told the Philippian christians to have the same thinking of humbleness that Jesus Christ had. Not that he thought himself equal to God but instead, even though Jesus was in God's form, he never snatched at the idea he was equal to God. This humility that Jesus is shown to be exercising here, the apostle was teaching the Philippian christians to follow the greatest example of humility when Jesus stating that he never thought of himself equal to God even though he was in God's form.


Hi, thanks for your response

Isaiah 9:6, which is about Jesus Christ, is very clear, that He IS “’êl Gibbôr”, which is in the Dead Sea Scrolls written different, as “’êlGibbôr”, literally, "GodMighty", or, "God-Mighty", or "All-Powerful-God". Even the New World Translation by the Jehovah’s Witnesses, reads, "Mighty God". In Isaiah 10:21, we have the exact same used for Yahweh, or Jehovah. Both uses are equal. This is clear that there are TWO distinct Persons Who are equally God, in the Old Testament.

John begins his Gospel with the words, "“In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God.” (1:1).

John says that "the Word", Who has existed from all eternity, was "WITH God”. Better in the Greek, “καὶ ὁ λόγος ἦν πρὸς τὸν θεόν”. Here we have “ὁ λόγος” (the Word), Who is the Lord Jesus Christ. We also now have “τὸν θεόν”, literally “the God”, which contextually, as seen from verse 18, is God the Father. John here uses the Greek preposition, “πρὸς”, which shows a distinction between, “ὁ λόγος”, and “τὸν θεόν”, as this preposition has the meaning of, “face to face with”, “in the presence of”. Quite impossible for “ὁ λόγος” and “τὸν θεόν”, being on and the same Person. Here we have the teaching of the “UniPersonal” God of the Bible. This destroys any idea of “Unitarianism”, and shows that, with the Holy Spirit, that the only correct understanding of the Godhead, is Trinitarian.

After stating the eternal existence of “ὁ λόγος”, and His distinction from “τὸν θεόν”, here. John goes on to say of “ὁ λόγος”, “καὶ θεὸς ἦν ὁ λόγος”. Literally in English, “and God was the Word”. However, as “ὁ λόγος”, is the subject, the correct way to render the Greek in English, is, “and the Word was God”. As we have it in John 4:24, “πνεῦμα ὁ θεὸς”, where the literal English is, “spirit the God”, but here “θεὸς” is the subject, so the correct English would be, “God is spirit”.

In verse 18, the Original text as written by John is:

“θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε μονογενὴς θεὸς ὁ ὢν εἰς τὸν κόλπον τοῦ πατρὸς ἐκεῖνος ἐξηγήσατο”, literally, “God no one has seen at any time, the Unique God Who is always in close relation with the Father, He has made Him known” (my translation)

The reading “μονογενὴς θεὸς (God)”, instead of “μονογενὴς υἱὸς (Son)”, is found in the oldest Greek manuscripts for the Gospel of John. The Codices P66 (about 200 AD, Herbert Hunger dates it between 100-150); P75 (early 3rd cent.). It is also the reading of, the Codices, Sinaticus (4th), Vaticanus (4th), Ephraemi (5th). Irenaeus, Bishop of Lyons (130-200), Clement of Alexandria (150-215), and The Diatessaron, (about 180, from the Greek). We also have the testimony of the early “heretics”, like Valentinus of Egypt (about 140), Origen (185-254), Arius of Alexandria (250-336), who read “θεὸς” in John 1:18. The Unitarian New Testament by Dr Noyes, also has “God”. The Jehovah’s Witnesses, in both their Kingdom Greek Interlinears, read: “θεὸν οὐδεὶς ἑώρακεν πώποτε μονογενὴς θεὸς”, and translate it, “God no one has seen at any time, only-begotten god”. Like John 1:1, their translation has nothing to do with what the Greek grammar actually says. Why would they use “God” for the Father, and then “god” for Jesus Christ? They cannot argue because of the Greek grammar. In both places there is no definite article in the Greek, “Θεὸν, θεὸς”, not, “τὸν θεόν, ὁ θεὸς”. It is either “God” in both places, or “god”, there are not grammatical grounds for one “God” and the other “god”.

“μονογενὴς”, never means "only-begotten", which in the Greek is "μονογέννητος". The literal meaning is "one of a kind", or better, "unique".

In John 20:28, Thomas tells the Risen Jesus Christ:

“και απεκριθη ο θωμας και ειπεν αυτω ο Kυριος μου και ο θεος μου”

“And answered Thomas and said to Him, My Lord and My God”

Jesus did not rebuke Thomas for saying this directly to Him as an address, which He most certainly would have done,m if Thomas was wrong. All of the words are addressed directly to Jesus Christ, which is clear from, "εἶπεν αὐτῷ", which is in the singular number.

In Hebrews Chapter 1, verses 8 and 9:

“But to the Son He says: "Your throne, O God (ο θρονος σου ο θεος) , is forever and ever; a scepter of righteousness is the scepter of Your Kingdom. You have loved righteousness and hated lawlessness; therefore O God, Your God (ὁ θεὸς ὁ θεός σου) has anointed You with the oil of gladness above Your companions”

In both verses ο θεος, is in the vocative, as a direct address to Jesus Christ, by God the Father, where He addresses Jesus as GOD.

In fact, in verse 6, the Father commands that Jesus Christ is WORSHIPPED!

If Jesus Christ is not Almighty God, then He could never have said what He does in John 5:23:

"that all should Honour the Son just as they Honour the Father. He who does not Honour the Son does not Honour the Father who sent Him”

“Honour” is the Greek “timáō”, “honour, reverence, esteem, value, prize”. Also, “to exalt, glorify”. In Isaiah 42:8, it says, “I am Yahweh, that is My Name; I will not give My Glory to another or My Praise to idols”. The Hebrew word here “kâbôd” translated as “Glory”, is also used for, “honour, reverence, glory”.

"just as" is, kathōs, “according as, just as, even as”, with no difference!

Can a created person say that He must be HONORED in the SAME WAY as God the Father is HONORED? IMPOSSIBLE!

In Revelation 5:13-14, BOTH Jesus Christ and the Father, are given the SAME, "Blessing and Honour and Glory and Might". the Greek Greek conjunction, “και”, is used for “sameness”, with absolute equality. Thus, we read in chapter 22, verse 1: “And he showed me a river of water of life, bright as crystal, proceeding out of the throne of God and of the Lamb”. The Greek here is very important, “του θρονου του θεου και του αρνιου”, where “του θρονου” (the throne), is in the singular number. God and the Lamb, as “distinct” Persons, are united in Their Rule. This absolute unity, can also be seen in chapter 11:15, “And the seventh angel sounded; and there were great voices in heaven, saying, The kingdoms of this world are become the kingdoms of our Lord, and of His Christ; and He shall Reign for ever and ever”. Note the end, “He shall Reign”, which in the Greek is, “βασιλευσει”, which is in the singular number. It can refer to “His Christ”, or, to “our Lord and of His Christ”, the latter no doubt being the correct meaning, as seen from the main passage from chapter 5, and 22.

There can be no doubt, that in the Infallible, Inspired Word of God, the Holy Bible, Jesus Christ IS YHWH, ALMIGHTY GOD, and 100% COEQUAL with God the Father in the eternal Godhead!
 
solar scripture said,
Isaiah 9:6 which is about Jesus Christ, is very clear, that He IS “’êl Gibbôr”, which is in the Dead Sea Scrolls written different, as “’êlGibbôr”, literally, "GodMighty", or, "God-Mighty", or "All-Powerful-God". Even the New World Translation by the Jehovah’s Witnesses, reads, "Mighty God". In Isaiah 10:21, we have the exact same used for Yahweh, or Jehovah. Both uses are equal. This is clear that there are TWO distinct Persons Who are equally God, in the Old Testament.[/QUOTE\]
Yes Jesus is said to be a Mighty God and so is YHWH God said to be a Mighty God so the word, "elGibbor," is applied to both the only begotten Son of God Jesus Christ, and YHWH God, who is the Father and God of Jesus, but the word, "elShaddai" which is translated, "Almighty God," is applied only to YHWH God, never is it applied to YHWH God's only begotten Son Jesus Christ. So just because the word elGibbor is applied to both the only begotten Son of God Jesus Christ and his Father and God who is YHWH God, doesn't mean YHWH God and the only begotten Son of God Jesus Christ are the same. AsI said the word "elShaddai," which is translated Almighty God is applied only to YHWH God who is the Father and God of Jesus Christ.

The scriptures regarding the only begotten Son of God are always making a distinction between Jesus and his Father and God, who is YHWH God. YHWH God is always shown to be the superior of the only begotten Son of God Jesus Christ. YHWH God has more authority than the only begotten Son of God Jesus Christ. The only true God has no equal much less anyone superior to him in any way. So when the scriptures say that God sent his only begotten Son to the world of mankind, I believe it was YHWH God who sent his only begotten Son to the world of mankind. So I believe it was YHWH God only begotten Son who became flesh\human because the scriptures say the Word became flesh\human.
 
solar scripture said,
Isaiah 9:6 which is about Jesus Christ, is very clear, that He IS “’êl Gibbôr”, which is in the Dead Sea Scrolls written different, as “’êlGibbôr”, literally, "GodMighty", or, "God-Mighty", or "All-Powerful-God". Even the New World Translation by the Jehovah’s Witnesses, reads, "Mighty God". In Isaiah 10:21, we have the exact same used for Yahweh, or Jehovah. Both uses are equal. This is clear that there are TWO distinct Persons Who are equally God, in the Old Testament.[/QUOTE\]
Yes Jesus is said to be a Mighty God and so is YHWH God said to be a Mighty God so the word, "elGibbor," is applied to both the only begotten Son of God Jesus Christ, and YHWH God, who is the Father and God of Jesus, but the word, "elShaddai" which is translated, "Almighty God," is applied only to YHWH God, never is it applied to YHWH God's only begotten Son Jesus Christ. So just because the word elGibbor is applied to both the only begotten Son of God Jesus Christ and his Father and God who is YHWH God, doesn't mean YHWH God and the only begotten Son of God Jesus Christ are the same. AsI said the word "elShaddai," which is translated Almighty God is applied only to YHWH God who is the Father and God of Jesus Christ.

The scriptures regarding the only begotten Son of God are always making a distinction between Jesus and his Father and God, who is YHWH God. YHWH God is always shown to be the superior of the only begotten Son of God Jesus Christ. YHWH God has more authority than the only begotten Son of God Jesus Christ. The only true God has no equal much less anyone superior to him in any way. So when the scriptures say that God sent his only begotten Son to the world of mankind, I believe it was YHWH God who sent his only begotten Son to the world of mankind. So I believe it was YHWH God only begotten Son who became flesh\human because the scriptures say the Word became flesh\human.

Jesus Christ is YHWH!


 
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