A
AHIMSA
Guest
Okay, I have discussed this issue before. The Bible is often used to condemn homosexuality. My question, to those that use the Bible in this manner, is this:
The Bible, in several instances, seems to be perfectly fine with many acts that would offend modern standards, acts that seem to exist as a traditional threat to the 'sanctity of marriage'.
For example, Lots daughters get him drunk, have sex with him and then bear his children. He has no idea that they have slept with him, and this equates to rape. The Bible discusses these events as though they are perfectly normal
Or Gideon, who died while still having a concubine (a sex slave) and had many wives (Judges 8:31), yet I am sure that most Christians would assume that he went to heaven. My question is this: "How can Gideon have gone into heaven after having lived in such sin...while homosexuals will go to hell?"
Or David, who had children by many, many women....yet this is not condemned. The Bible discusses these events as though they are perfectly normal.
2Samuel.3:2-7, 5:13, 15:16, 16:21
All this polygamy exists, yet God only condmens Solomon for taking foreign women. Otherwise, the authors of the Bible were completely fine with polygamy and sex slavery.
How do these righteous Biblical figures find heaven and God ,whilst homosexuals do not?
I'm not trying to disrespect the Bible or anything, these are authentic questions posed with scriptural support.
The Bible, in several instances, seems to be perfectly fine with many acts that would offend modern standards, acts that seem to exist as a traditional threat to the 'sanctity of marriage'.
For example, Lots daughters get him drunk, have sex with him and then bear his children. He has no idea that they have slept with him, and this equates to rape. The Bible discusses these events as though they are perfectly normal
Or Gideon, who died while still having a concubine (a sex slave) and had many wives (Judges 8:31), yet I am sure that most Christians would assume that he went to heaven. My question is this: "How can Gideon have gone into heaven after having lived in such sin...while homosexuals will go to hell?"
Or David, who had children by many, many women....yet this is not condemned. The Bible discusses these events as though they are perfectly normal.
2Samuel.3:2-7, 5:13, 15:16, 16:21
All this polygamy exists, yet God only condmens Solomon for taking foreign women. Otherwise, the authors of the Bible were completely fine with polygamy and sex slavery.
How do these righteous Biblical figures find heaven and God ,whilst homosexuals do not?
I'm not trying to disrespect the Bible or anything, these are authentic questions posed with scriptural support.