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The Holy Trinity

So the post above isn't you? It doesn't reveal who you are by what you posted?
Must have been someone else then because I swear it says DM.


DM said:
Hi Potlock.

I think your comparison to "words" (as in a recorded voice, per your example) being representative of a person is a valid point. I would not go so far as to say, however, that my words (recorded on a tape) are literally, me. In other words, we cannot say, "that's 100% Mr. Potluck" with reference to just a recording of your voice on magnetic tape. The words may indeed communicate your heart, but the words themselves are just soundwaves in the atmosphere. There's more to you, than just words.

No analogy can fit precisely of course. But I think people can get what I'm trying to say.

DM said:
I agree with you that God communicates through words (the spoken message and written message about the gospel of His kingdom). I agree that these words represent "God" to the extent that God reveals His plans and purposes via "the word". Which is the biblical understanding of John 1:1, " . . . and the word was God". Consequently, I agree with your assessment that God's word is synonymous with God's will - God's purpose.

I disagree with your assessment though, that God's word is synonymous with God's person (as in, His literal "being"). What God is, in-and-of Godself, is beyond understanding, and thus, beyond words. God has not revealed what He is. What God has revealed, is what He is like. God is described in the Bible with metaphorical terms that appeal to human understanding.

You yourself said the following:
We want to think in terms of a physical world and using worldly logic
The reason we do this, is because that's how God designed us. There's nothing wrong with utilizing our God-given gifts of reasoning to determine whether a message appears to be valid or not. As for the idea of the Trinity, it is, to borrow some of your words, "downright ludicrous". As a result, why in the world should we believe something that cannot be revealed by language at all?

Grace and peace.
David

First you mention God has not revealed His person, His literal "being" but only what He is like.

Then you state "is beyond understanding, and thus, beyond words"

And lastly "As a result, why in the world should we believe something that cannot be revealed by language at all?"

So if what God "is" is beyond understanding as stated but "why in the world should we believe something that cannot be revealed by language at all?" then how can you say you believe He exists? If He's beyond understanding and we shouldn't believe what cannot be revealed by words ....
See what I mean? If one must believe because something CAN be revealed by words and God cannot be revealed by language then there's no basis to believe.


John 14:7 If ye had known me, ye should have known my Father also: and from henceforth ye know him, and have seen him.

How can I know the Father if He has not been revealed?

John 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Show us the Father?


Again I ask... Is Christ the Word of God or not?
And how can God's will and purpose not be God?
I cannot abide the mental gymnastics necessary to separate God's being from God's "soul" if you will. That seems the only way to deny Christ's deity is by separating God from God's will/purpose/intent and spirit. But no matter how much you try to slice up God you still have... God. And you can't separate yourself from your post either. That's you alright. Nobody else would have posted that but you. Now, imagine that post becoming flesh and you have some idea of the power of which we speak.

We have no problem with Captain Kirk's alter-ego becoming flesh (if you remember the episode) but when it comes to God all bets are off.
lol
If we can imagine it happening to Captain Kirk I'm rather confident it could happen with God too in the person of Jesus Christ.
 
.

If Jesus Christ is not the God of God and the Light of Light as the Nicene Creed elegantly put it...

then our divine sonship as christians is nothing but a farce and a fluff. a mere metaphorical nonsense.

Jesus Christ is of the same substance/essense/dna/make-up/genre of the Father and so are we thru him.

so that God is all and in all.

.
 
Hi Josh.

Sorry for the delay - I came home last night to seeing Veritas' and Potlock's posts and wanted to respond to them as well.

I understand your emphasis being on Jesus as the Creator, which I obviously disagree with. I think the burden of proof doesn't rest on my view, but on yours, when you say for example,
Explain to me again how it is possible for a human to create all things, especially before God even created humans.

I've never claimed that Jesus is the Creator, so why should I be the one having to answer this question? I am not the one claiming that a human being (Jesus) created all things. You have acknowledged that "God . . . created humans". And yet by implication, you deny Jesus' true humanity, since a human being is by definition, a creature (i.e. a created being). If Jesus is "fully man", then he is a creature like every other man.

I think the primary difference between our views is that you are thinking of humanity as nothing more nor less than physical flesh only. Your Jesus, is one who pre-existed as some sort of spirit-being (or Spirit-Being) who came into flesh. This is the typical orthodox ecclesiastical appeal to interpreting John 1:1 and John 1:14. However, these ontological assignments to "logos" are foreign to the apostle John.

The "logos" (typically translated as "word", or "words", or "message" in the New Testament) is the gospel of the kingdom of God. The message of the gospel is life-giving (in-spirit-ed). God's plan, purpose and promises (contained in "the word") all point to God's fulfillment of that plan, purpose and promise in Christ. What became flesh in John 1:14 was not a pre-existant Spirit-Being who subsequently became a hybrid human/Spirt being, rather, God's plan and purpose became realized and finalized through his Messiah, Jesus. A 100% human being.

The difference of our views can be described best, I think, in the difference between your view of Jesus' personal pre-existence, and my view of Jesus' prophetic pre-existence. Yours is a thoroughly ontological view, in that you're viewing Jesus as a literal pre-existing entity of some sort, who later animated a human body. Mine is a view that sees Jesus' pre-existence as thoroughly prophetic. God planned Jesus to come along (at a given point in human history), and thus, Jesus was "foreknown before the foundation of the world" (cf. 1 Peter 1:20).

This is not "foreknown" as in, God knew him before he became a man personally. Rather, this is "foreknown" as in, God knew him in His plan (logos) before he ever literally existed. Which is precisely why the Bible can say, " . . . God who gives life to the dead and calls things that are not as though they were." (Romans 4:17). What God "foreknows", then, God has thus "predestined".

Jeremiah 1:5 ""Before I formed you in the womb I knew you, before you were born I set you apart; I appointed you as a prophet to the nations."

Did Jeremiah personally pre-exist? Of course not. No human being has ever personally pre-existed. He did prophetically pre-exist however. The same is true of Jesus of Nazareth.

Your interpretations of the New Testament texts that say the world was made "through Christ" are assuming that Jesus made the world himself. If that were the case, then the true author of the law of Moses would have been Moses himself, since the law was given "through Moses". Jesus is God's reason, plan, rationale, and purpose for creating anything in the first place. He's the ultimate expression of God's plan, which is to give eternal life to His children. Jesus the man "overcame", and invites us to do likewise. If Jesus is God, then he's no more understandable to us than the words which attempt to explain the trinity.

Grace and peace.
David
 
I've never claimed that Jesus is the Creator, so why should I be the one having to answer this question? I am not the one claiming that a human being (Jesus) created all things. You have acknowledged that "God . . . created humans". And yet by implication, you deny Jesus' true humanity, since a human being is by definition, a creature (i.e. a created being). If Jesus is "fully man", then he is a creature like every other man.

You either grossly misunderstand me or are semantically twisting my words. I would like you to go back if you would be so kind and reply to each comment I made (there are only 4 short replies - it shouldn't be too hard) so that we are on the same page, because even though this general post briefly overlapped one of my conerns about the Logos it avoided other points I made. I prefer the straight-forward point-for-point approach, as I often do by quoting and then responding.

Now to explain where you misunderstood me or deliberately twisted my meaning, you claimed Jesus was only a man, I acknowledge that Jesus is God and man, thus I meant in light of that to ask you how can a mere man create everything. In my post I supported the idea of Christ creating everything by referencing John chapter 1 and Hebrews chapter 1, although there are more passages I could quote to support that Christ was involved in creation. I would like you to address that. The point you have to make is that Christ somehow was not involved in creation regardless of the many passages that say He was.

I think the primary difference between our views is that you are thinking of humanity as nothing more nor less than physical flesh only. Your Jesus, is one who pre-existed as some sort of spirit-being (or Spirit-Being) who came into flesh. This is the typical orthodox ecclesiastical appeal to interpreting John 1:1 and John 1:14. However, these ontological assignments to "logos" are foreign to the apostle John.

I would like it if you addressed my rebuttal to your "point" that Hebrews 5:5 somehow denies Christ's pre-existance, as that is very relevant to this topic.

The "logos" (typically translated as "word", or "words", or "message" in the New Testament) is the gospel of the kingdom of God. The message of the gospel is life-giving (in-spirit-ed). God's plan, purpose and promises (contained in "the word") all point to God's fulfillment of that plan, purpose and promise in Christ. What became flesh in John 1:14 was not a pre-existant Spirit-Being who subsequently became a hybrid human/Spirt being, rather, God's plan and purpose became realized and finalized through his Messiah, Jesus. A 100% human being.

People who work off of heretical or unorthodox ideas thrive in ambiguous terminology to prove their points. What I just quoted above was a very ambiguous wording, to "worm" your way around the rather direct expressions given in John 1:1 and 1:14.

You do not propose how an inanimate "plan" becomes flesh, infact you didn't even claim that it became flesh you said it "became realized" through the Messiah, insinuating some odd mystical reference to a syncretism of two personas into one body (in a type of Gnostic dualism). Also you cannot prove previous "manifestation/realization" of the Logos through anyone else (in the prophets, for example), because the Logos is not a plan but rather the creative expression/thought [essentially mind] (you can look at many exegetical and lexographical sources that support that interpretation for logos) of God [The Logos is God - John 1:1]. Christ is the mind of God, just as the Holy Spirit is, thus the high level of unity between them, they all being equally God.

If you ever expect to prove anything to me I expect quality exegesis, not vague theories.

The difference of our views can be described best, I think, in the difference between your view of Jesus' personal pre-existence, and my view of Jesus' prophetic pre-existence. Yours is a thoroughly ontological view, in that you're viewing Jesus as a literal pre-existing entity of some sort, who later animated a human body. Mine is a view that sees Jesus' pre-existence as thoroughly prophetic. God planned Jesus to come along (at a given point in human history), and thus, Jesus was "foreknown before the foundation of the world" (cf. 1 Peter 1:20).

Foreknowledge is not a topic I am concerned about at the moment. The doctrine of foreknowledge is not necessary to prove the diety of Christ. Lets focus with the topics already brought up, as it is enough to keep us busy for the time being.

God Bless,

~Josh
 
Hi Josh.

Just read your last post - I'll have to respond in the next day or two to give it the depth it deserves. Lots to do on my plate right at the moment.

Peace,
David
 
Hi everyone,

John 3:11 Verily, verily, I say unto thee, We speak that we do know, and testify that we have seen; and ye receive not our witness.
12 If I have told you earthly things, and ye believe not, how shall ye believe, if I tell you of heavenly things?
13 And no man hath ascended up to heaven, but he that came down from heaven, even the Son of man which is in heaven.


John 6 also says several times that Jesus came down from Heaven.

John 1 says that He is God, all was made by him, and specifically in verse 14 it says that He became flesh.

Hebrews 1:8 But unto the Son he saith, Thy throne, O God, is for ever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of thy kingdom. Here, the Father calls the Son God.

Colossians 2:8 Beware lest any man spoil you through philosophy and vain deceit, after the tradition of men, after the rudiments of the world, and not after Christ.
9 For in him dwelleth all the fulness of the Godhead bodily.
10 And ye are complete in him, which is the head of all principality and power:

Here we understand that Jesus is the fulness of the Godhead bodily.

John 8 tells us that Jesus is from above, proceeds from the Father, and is I am. Before Abraham, I am...this is a present, not a past, "I was".
John 8: 23 And he said unto them, Ye are from beneath; I am from above: ye are of this world; I am not of this world.
John 8: 42 Jesus said unto them, If God were your Father, ye would love me: for I proceeded forth and came from God; neither came I of myself, but he sent me.
43 Why do ye not understand my speech? even because ye cannot hear my word.
44 Ye are of your father the devil, and the lusts of your father ye will do. He was a murderer from the beginning, and abode not in the truth, because there is no truth in him. When he speaketh a lie, he speaketh of his own: for he is a liar, and the father of it.
45 And because I tell you the truth, ye believe me not.
46 Which of you convinceth me of sin? And if I say the truth, why do ye not believe me?
47 He that is of God heareth God's words: ye therefore hear them not, because ye are not of God.
48 Then answered the Jews, and said unto him, Say we not well that thou art a Samaritan, and hast a devil?
49 Jesus answered, I have not a devil; but I honour my Father, and ye do dishonour me.
50 And I seek not mine own glory: there is one that seeketh and judgeth.
51 Verily, verily, I say unto you, If a man keep my saying, he shall never see death.
52 Then said the Jews unto him, Now we know that thou hast a devil. Abraham is dead, and the prophets; and thou sayest, If a man keep my saying, he shall never taste of death.
53 Art thou greater than our father Abraham, which is dead? and the prophets are dead: whom makest thou thyself?
54 Jesus answered, If I honour myself, my honour is nothing: it is my Father that honoureth me; of whom ye say, that he is your God:
55 Yet ye have not known him; but I know him: and if I should say, I know him not, I shall be a liar like unto you: but I know him, and keep his saying.
56 Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw it, and was glad.
57 Then said the Jews unto him, Thou art not yet fifty years old, and hast thou seen Abraham?
58 Jesus said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, Before Abraham was, I am.


John also witnesses of who He is further in John 1:15 John bare witness of him, and cried, saying, This was he of whom I spake, He that cometh after me is preferred before me: for he was before me.
16 And of his fulness have all we received, and grace for grace.
17 For the law was given by Moses, but grace and truth came by Jesus Christ.
18 No man hath seen God at any time; the only begotten Son, which is in the bosom of the Father, he hath declared him.
The Word, God, the Creator, the One who was before John, the only begotten Son. The same Son that the Father calls God in Hebrews.

Warning....

1 John 4:1 Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world.
2 Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God:
3 And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world.
4 Ye are of God, little children, and have overcome them: because greater is he that is in you, than he that is in the world.
5 They are of the world: therefore speak they of the world, and the world heareth them.
6 We are of God: he that knoweth God heareth us; he that is not of God heareth not us. Hereby know we the spirit of truth, and the spirit of error.
The Word, God, the Son made flesh, whom the Father calls God, has come in the flesh, and to deny thes Truths is of the spirit of the antichrist...the spirit of error.

The Lord bless.
 
Hi Josh.

Returning to your post of August 28th, 2007 @ 2:53pm

You asked & said,
And why do you think Jesus was called first born from the dead? He was the first so that the fruits may follow. Paul also uses the analogy of the ressurection as giving birth to a child.

To begin, what you said above was in reference to (and quoting my citation of) Hebrews 5:5. Given the context of that passage, the phrase "first born from the dead" isn't specifically mentioned, so I'm not sure why you were bringing it up right then. At any rate, the question you've asked is, "Why do you think Jesus was called first born from the dead?"

The simple answer is because Jesus was the first to be raised from death to eternal life. No one had ever experienced this before, and thus, Jesus is the "firstborn from the dead". Consequently, since Jesus is the "firstborn", there will be others born afterward. "For those whom [God] foreknew, He also predestined conformed to the image of His Son, so that [Jesus] would be the firstborn among many brethren;" (Romans 8:29).

In God's plan, purpose and promise to make of Abraham a great nation, through which He would bless all nations, God sought to bring many "sons" to glory, beginning with the founder/prince of this group of sons, Jesus of Nazareth, the firstborn from the dead.

You asked & said,
So then who is the Logos again? I'd think that the very mind/thoughts/expression (logos) of God would be God himself, especially if also God's Holy Spirit can be spoken as the "Spirit of Christ" then Christ shares intrinsicaly and inherently in the Godhead (Colossians 2:9).

I think I sufficiently addressed this point in my previous post as far as what the logos of God is. Your assessment of the logos of God being God's mind/thoughts/expression, is completely biblical and accurate in my opinion. However, your idea that the logos is therefore 100% ontologically God Himself, as is similar with Potluck's view, I disagree with that conclusion. Your equation of 'God's Holy Spirit' as being synonymous with 'the Spirit of Christ', is also something that I think you're taking too far in the correlation. If your method of understanding this is applied universally to the Scriptures, then would we not, likewise, be just as much "God" (as in "100%) that Jesus supposedly is? . . . "and to know the love of Christ which surpasses knowledge, that you may be filled up to all the fullness of God". (Ephesians 3:19)

You asked & said,
Uh, and what about the first chapters of John and Hebrews that make it clear that through Christ all things were made? Explain to me again how it is possible for a human to create all things, especially before God even created humans.

Again, the biblical claim that "through Christ all things were made", does not mean "Christ made all things". The Greek words rendered into English as "through" (and in some versions as "by"), is absolutely renderable as "with respect to" - or better yet, "because of". An excellent example of this, where the exact same Greek contruct is used, is found in Galatians 1:24. "And they were glorifying God because of me (literally, "in me")". In other words, Paul is the reason for their being glad and glorifying God. Paul did not make them glorify God, as though they had no choice but to glorify. Rather, Paul is the impetus for glorifying God. Likewise, as God made the world "because of", or "in" or "through" or "with respect to", the son - then the understanding becomes crystal clear. Jesus is, through the mind / thoughts / expressions of God, (i.e. logos), God's rationale for creating in the first place. I don't know how to put it in more simple terms than that. God created all things, so that His plan, purpose and promise to Abraham to bless all nations in his seed (Jesus), would be realized.

Finally, you asked & said,
Bondage?! Acknowledging the diety of Christ keeps you from having diminished views of Christ. Infact it can be stated from the sum of what the entire NT says about Jesus that it is impossible to overestimate the character and person of Christ!

Yes, bondage. Perhaps that word comes across as too harsh, but I think it's a fitting expression of trinitarianism. My view of Christ isn't diminished in the least. In fact, the belief in Jesus' humanity (minus his so-called "deity") makes him far more impressive to consider. Which is to say, if Jesus was and is Almighty God - then what's the big deal? Sure, God can do anything. It's for more inspiring and encouraging to consider that what he did was drawn out by his faith in God. "The righteous will live by faith". How could it possibly be any less true of Jesus?

The trinitarian Jesus on the other hand, doesn't need faith . . . he's God. Believing Jesus is God is perhaps the most legalistic view any Christian can have. Which reminds me, have you looked in your thread about an insight into the fundamental nature of sin lately? I'd like to you what your thoughts are on that sometime as well, since it ties in so directly with whether Jesus was a man, or a so-called God-man.

Grace and peace.
David
 
Potluck.

I LOVE Star Trek, and I absolutely know the episode you're referring to. (I love how the film crew used the soft focus lens on the "gentle" side of Kirk, including the soft makeup, whereas on the "wicked" side they used harsh lighting, tons of eyeliner and made him all sweaty looking. Awesome show.)

I still think your point of my post literally "being" me (as in 100%, ontological), is going too far. From my post there is still much to me that you cannot gather. What you can gather, is what I reveal through my word to you. It is the same way with God. We can ONLY know of God, what God chooses to reveal through "the word". What God IS, in-and-of-Godself, is not revealed because there are no words to describe it.

Grace and peace - live long and prosper.
David
 
To begin, what you said above was in reference to (and quoting my citation of) Hebrews 5:5. Given the context of that passage, the phrase "first born from the dead" isn't specifically mentioned, so I'm not sure why you were bringing it up right then.

The reason I bring it up is because in Hebrews 5:5 it quotes Psalm 2:7 saying, "today I have begotten you", and you in an attempt to disprove Jesus' preexistance quoted this - while I was showing you that God meant that in the sense of Jesus' ressurection, of being the firstborn from the dead.

The interpretation of that passage is undeniable, because it is clearly stated that that is the proper application for it:

"that God has fulfilled this promise to our children in that He raised up Jesus, as it is also written in the second Psalm, 'YOU ARE MY SON; TODAY I HAVE BEGOTTEN YOU.' " (Acts 13:33)

Thus you misapplied Hebrews 5:5. Plain and simple.

However, your idea that the logos is therefore 100% ontologically God Himself, as is similar with Potluck's view, I disagree with that conclusion.

I'm sorry if the words "and the Word was God" are too strong for you to stomach, so perhaps I should feed you with the milk of the word. The book of John is consistant on its supposition of the pre-existance of Christ, him having former glory with the Father, and having come into the world, and Thomas rightly spoke when he called Jesus God. Jesus was handed all things over by his Father, and was given the authority to make men the sons of God, for God relegated all his authority even the judgement over to his son (which even the OT acknowledges is what God will do). Not only that but Jesus clearly was the spiritual rock which followed the Israelites in the desert, the pre-existing God.

Your equation of 'God's Holy Spirit' as being synonymous with 'the Spirit of Christ', is also something that I think you're taking too far in the correlation.

Odd then that the Spirit of Christ should be credited with the inspiration of the Prophets, and therefore Scripture (1 Peter 1:11). Very odd then that Peter would contradict himself by later then saying it was the Holy Spirit who did this (2 Peter 1:21).

If your method of understanding this is applied universally to the Scriptures, then would we not, likewise, be just as much "God" (as in "100%) that Jesus supposedly is? . . . "and to know the love of Christ which surpasses knowledge, that you may be filled up to all the fullness of God". (Ephesians 3:19)

Your point is rediculous. The Bible clearly tell us that we now see as in a mirror dimly, but then face to face and transformed from Glory to Glory and that God shall be all in all. I do not say that Jesus was made full, or made God, because He was and is God, through whom that fullness comes.

God's plan is to sum all things up in Christ (Ephesians 1:10).

Again, the biblical claim that "through Christ all things were made", does not mean "Christ made all things". The Greek words rendered into English as "through" (and in some versions as "by"), is absolutely renderable as "with respect to" - or better yet, "because of". An excellent example of this, where the exact same Greek contruct is used, is found in Galatians 1:24. "And they were glorifying God because of me (literally, "in me")". In other words, Paul is the reason for their being glad and glorifying God. Paul did not make them glorify God, as though they had no choice but to glorify. Rather, Paul is the impetus for glorifying God. Likewise, as God made the world "because of", or "in" or "through" or "with respect to", the son - then the understanding becomes crystal clear. Jesus is, through the mind / thoughts / expressions of God, (i.e. logos), God's rationale for creating in the first place. I don't know how to put it in more simple terms than that. God created all things, so that His plan, purpose and promise to Abraham to bless all nations in his seed (Jesus), would be realized.

Nothing more than semantic sinuosity. How clear is "and apart from him nothing was made that was made"? Or can't you read?

Or how clear is "by whom are all things, and we exist through Him" (1 Corinthians 8:6)? Well gee, I wonder who people existed in before Jesus same around... oh, there must not have been anyone in existance before Jesus came in the flesh! Here's your answer: "For in him we live and move and have our being" (Acts 17:28). Jesus is the true God who upholds all things by the word of his power.

And how much sinuosity must be used to dodge: "For by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities--all things have been created through Him and for Him" (Colossians 1:16). The comprehensive terminilogy of "by", and "for", and "through" is typical of Paul's super-abundant language to describe all-encompasing participation, as he often uses in his epistles, especially Ephesians. To challenge the scope of this would be to challenge the tautology of all of Paul's encompasing language which he uses in almost every epistle. Only a fool would seek to run from the comprehensiveness of Paul's statement.

Yes, bondage. Perhaps that word comes across as too harsh, but I think it's a fitting expression of trinitarianism. My view of Christ isn't diminished in the least. In fact, the belief in Jesus' humanity (minus his so-called "deity") makes him far more impressive to consider. Which is to say, if Jesus was and is Almighty God - then what's the big deal? Sure, God can do anything. It's for more inspiring and encouraging to consider that what he did was drawn out by his faith in God. "The righteous will live by faith". How could it possibly be any less true of Jesus?

Becoming flesh and emptying himself is the big deal, giving up the glory he had before the world began (once again pointing to Jesus' pre-existance). Note also that Jesus must also have been preexistant to have seen Satan fall from Heaven like lightning and to know that he was a liar from the beginning, as he "claims" to have seen. Or perhaps Jesus was lying?

And so who or what is Jesus to you? A mere man, just some guy, just another prophet, rejected and killed just like the rest of them, just the last in a long line of those who died for their faith, just a righteous man who had the authority of God and the Spirit without measure? He would at least seem to have to be some form of demi-god according to your view since he is the son of the Holy Spirit and Mary, just like when Zeus had copulation with Danae to birth Perseus, right? Just a demi-god right? Only the one who is given the glory which the one and only God said "My glory I give to no other". Jesus is a massive idol to you, an idolatrous masquerader, stealing God's precious glory.

Pearls before swine is Jesus' glory to you it would seem.

The trinitarian Jesus on the other hand, doesn't need faith . . . he's God.

Hog wash. Jesus grew in his understanding and in favor of God (Luke 1) just as Samuel did, thus he is thoroughly human, but his faith was infact made perfect by realizing his unity with the Father, he knew why he had been sent and was merely the mouth piece of the Father, who inspires perfect faith. Jesus had such faith that he knew if he asked of his Father that He would give to him 12,000 legions of Angels to deviler him out of the Roman's hands. Jesus knew his authority and that God had given all things over into his hands, and even the Spirit without measure, having authority also to judge on the last day, and even presently on earth forgive men of their sins, and to give men authority to become the sons of God and to claim his name as high as his Father's and to claim that he was the only way to the Father, and that if one had seen him they had seen the Father. Jesus had complete divine power and authority, even to overcome Satan, but yet he humbles himself to the point of obedience in the flesh and was obedient unto death.

And you tell me Christ had no faith!!

Believing Jesus is God is perhaps the most legalistic view any Christian can have.

Where the Spirit of the Lord is there is freedom. Christ had the Spirit without measure, and was perfect only as God could be. Christ as God acknowledges the true power and right (not privelage) that Jesus had to become the one, and only, eternal way to the Father. Jesus was a stumbling block because of his divine authority, but to those who enter through the narrow gate and realize that when we walk with Jesus, we walk with God, for Jesus is God, and the express image of his person: that realization is the most liberating reality that ever was and ever will be!

I serve an eternal Savior, not a "just add the Holy Spirit" microwavable, created Jesus.

Which reminds me, have you looked in your thread about an insight into the fundamental nature of sin lately? I'd like to you what your thoughts are on that sometime as well, since it ties in so directly with whether Jesus was a man, or a so-called God-man.

I'll try to look into it later.

~Josh
 
DM said:
I appreciate where you're coming from, but this issue isn't something I think we should accept when the Scriptures don't reveal it in the first place.

Well, this is where we disagree, I think Scriptures reveal it. I know the word "trinity" is not in the Bible but I do see the concept revealed as Josh has been pointing out.

DM said:
In other words, anything that God has desired to reveal to man is, by default, understandable through language - through words. Likewise, anything that God has desired not to reveal to man is, by default, beyond understanding - beyond words.

I think God can use understandable language (words) to lead us towards that which is beyond our understanding and vocabulary.
 
Hi Veritas,

When you say,
I think God can use understandable language (words) to lead us towards that which is beyond our understanding and vocabulary.

I'm curious to know then, why would God lead us to something that we can't understand ? Isn't it God's desire for us to read nothing else but what we do understand? "For we write nothing else to you than what you read and understand, and I hope you will understand until the end," (cf 2 Corinthians 1:13)

If the goal of biblical instruction is to promote, "love from a pure heart and a good conscience and a sincere faith" (1 Timothy 1:5), then how would a mystical - beyond words - beyond understanding - experience apply to this?

Grace and peace.
David
 
DM,

Will you be able to reply to my post soon? I know its big but I would appreciate it if you tried to answer. I have a tendency to become very blunt and sarcastic sometimes when debating but please realize it is an outflowing of my frustration over what I believe to be an incorrectly held doctrine - thus why I defend what I consider the Biblical approach vehemently. Sometimes reproof is hard, but do tell me if I get carried away. I do not mean to be overly condecending - I'm attacking the doctrine/beliefs not you personally.

God Bless,

~Josh
 
Hi Josh.

I don't have the time, typically, to post very long replies (Husband, father of 3, self-employed, etc.)

I didn't respond to your last post because there are quite a number of tangents that are going on. I understand your frustration as well, so let's try to work on one point at a time. What point / question, from your previous post, would you like addressed more than any other?

Peace,
David
 
DM said:
Veritas said:
When you say,

I think God can use understandable language (words) to lead us towards that which is beyond our understanding and vocabulary.

I'm curious to know then, why would God lead us to something that we can't understand ? Isn't it God's desire for us to read nothing else but what we do understand? "For we write nothing else to you than what you read and understand, and I hope you will understand until the end," (cf 2 Corinthians 1:13)

Yes, I think there are things we can understand and should as scripture tells us, but even faith itself, I view as beyond reason. I understand, in that I understand its beyond my reasoning capabilities. The concept of eternity is another, I can't really grasp it with my mind, but I understand it exists. Or the qualities of God - all present, all knowing, and all powerful. If I really stop to try thinking about, it boggles my mind, but I understand from scripture it is true. God's love for us astonishes me and considering the evil we do to Him I cannot understand why He cares, but He does, and I lay my hope and faith in that.

DM said:
If the goal of biblical instruction is to promote, "love from a pure heart and a good conscience and a sincere faith" (1 Timothy 1:5), then how would a mystical - beyond words - beyond understanding - experience apply to this?

Because I believe there is a mystical or more specifically "spiritual" aspect as well as a natural. I am certainly not denying biblical instruction and reason - I believe these very natural tools are what God works through in Spirit. And after all, we worship God in spirit. John 4:23-24
 
DM said:
Hi Josh.

I don't have the time, typically, to post very long replies (Husband, father of 3, self-employed, etc.)

I didn't respond to your last post because there are quite a number of tangents that are going on. I understand your frustration as well, so let's try to work on one point at a time. What point / question, from your previous post, would you like addressed more than any other?

Peace,
David

I understand, but I do hope we can eventually go over most of it. I purposely make statements that take implications to an extreme in hopes to repulse the person I'm debating against to such a point that they must either re-think their position or significantly reword their arguements. Thus my "microwavable, created Jesus" comment is supposed to show my distain of the idea that Jesus is created, and my "pearls before swine" statement to you was to show you how your views seems to disregard the level of Jesus' glory, which in comparison to what view should be held (IMO - that is) it would seem your view of Jesus' glory is greatly diminished - thus "pearls before swine" in comparison. I hope to get some more positive feed back on those.

However the section I perhaps wanted answered the most, although I do think you should also read what I said about it not being a legalistic doctrine to believe in Jesus' diety (that's not a tangent - that's on topic), I would most like you to respond to this, where I wrote:

Nothing more than semantic sinuosity. How clear is "and apart from him nothing was made that was made"? Or can't you read?

Or how clear is "by whom are all things, and we exist through Him" (1 Corinthians 8:6)? Well gee, I wonder who people existed in before Jesus same around... oh, there must not have been anyone in existance before Jesus came in the flesh! Here's your answer: "For in him we live and move and have our being" (Acts 17:28). Jesus is the true God who upholds all things by the word of his power.

And how much sinuosity must be used to dodge: "For by Him all things were created, both in the heavens and on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or rulers or authorities--all things have been created through Him and for Him" (Colossians 1:16). The comprehensive terminilogy of "by", and "for", and "through" is typical of Paul's super-abundant language to describe all-encompasing participation, as he often uses in his epistles, especially Ephesians. To challenge the scope of this would be to challenge the tautology of all of Paul's encompasing language which he uses in almost every epistle. Only a fool would seek to run from the comprehensiveness of Paul's statement.

You'll have to go back to get the context (to recall what you said - to which I was replying [ what I quoted above that]). Thanks.

God Bless,

~Josh
 
Hi Josh.

Thanks for summarizing, and I'll do my best to respond satisfactorily.

To begin, you're quoting a portion of John 1:3 which says "and apart from [him] nothing came into being that has come into being", and your interpretation of this verse, I gather, is that Jesus is therefore the Creator and only true God. To be clear, Jesus is nowhwere mentioned in John 1:1-3. No Bible concordance ever defines the Greek word "logos" as "Jesus". I believe you're mistaken in assuming that "word" and "Jesus" are synonymous terms.

As for 1 Corinthians 8:6, I agree with you that the verse is very clear. According to that verse, "yet for us there is one God, the Father . . ." Please consider that the verse does not say, "yet for us there is one God, the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost." I think this verse is especially damaging to trinitarian theology.

As for Colossians 1:16, I would suggest that you cross-reference this to Galatians 1:24. In so doing, you can see that it's wrong to conclude Jesus is the Creator. The exact same Greek construct is there for the word "by" (in the NASB), which is rendered in Galatians 1:24 as "because of". The Galatian church didn't glorify God "because of" Paul, in the sense that Paul made them do it - as if they had no choice in the matter. Rather, it is "because of" Paul, that the Galatians of their own accord and response, choose to glorify God.

In exactly the same way, God created all things "because of" Jesus. That is to say, of His [God's] own accord, in view of one day giving all things to His believed son, God thus created all things. In your view, the universe exists "because of" Jesus, as in, Jesus created it. That interpretation is false, in my opinion.

Grace and peace.
David
 
Hi Josh.

Thanks for summarizing, and I'll do my best to respond satisfactorily.

To begin, you're quoting a portion of John 1:3 which says "and apart from [him] nothing came into being that has come into being", and your interpretation of this verse, I gather, is that Jesus is therefore the Creator and only true God. To be clear, Jesus is nowhwere mentioned in John 1:1-3. No Bible concordance ever defines the Greek word "logos" as "Jesus". I believe you're mistaken in assuming that "word" and "Jesus" are synonymous terms.

Two questions: What became flesh, and how does whatever it was that became flesh relate to Jesus?

You undoubtedly will be at a loss to explain that the logos is not Jesus, because of the immediate context of the Logos being the "only begotten" (John 1:14) later applied in various places in the Gospel of John to Jesus, and the Logos being refered to as "Him" which John the Baptist testified was coming after him and was greater than he [John 1:15] (which was clearly applied to Jesus in the Synoptics and also later in John), and also the quick follow up after saying John the Baptist testified of the Logos by saying "grace and truth were realized through Jesus Christ" and "He has explained Him" (John 1:17-18). You have some explaining to do.

As for 1 Corinthians 8:6, I agree with you that the verse is very clear. According to that verse, "yet for us there is one God, the Father . . ." Please consider that the verse does not say, "yet for us there is one God, the Father, Son, and Holy Ghost." I think this verse is especially damaging to trinitarian theology.

Nice try, but terribly out of context. That verse has an A & B section (as they commonly call it). The end half (the B part) is a singualar unit and refers specifically to Jesus: "and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him" (1 Corinthians 8:6). Can't run from that. Once again, you have some explaning to do if you wish to justify your position.

As for Colossians 1:16, I would suggest that you cross-reference this to Galatians 1:24. In so doing, you can see that it's wrong to conclude Jesus is the Creator. The exact same Greek construct is there for the word "by" (in the NASB), which is rendered in Galatians 1:24 as "because of". The Galatian church didn't glorify God "because of" Paul, in the sense that Paul made them do it - as if they had no choice in the matter. Rather, it is "because of" Paul, that the Galatians of their own accord and response, choose to glorify God.

You weren't paying attention to the point of what I said. I know Greek can have contextual prepositions but I showed you how Paul uses comprehensive language, not just saying "by/in" but also "through" and "for". I have no problem rendering "by" as "in" because Young's Literal Translation has "because in him were the all things created, those in the heavens, and those upon the earth, those visible, and those invisible, whether thrones, whether lordships, whether principalities, whether authorities; all things through him, and for him, have been created". It still does not negate the idea of Christ being the agent and actor and beneficiary of all creation - the Alpha and Omega, the beginningand end. If all things will be consummated in Christ (Ephesians 1:10), it only makes sense that all things were created in Christ and by Christ. I don't know what to say, you still have some explaning to do.

God Bless,

~Josh
 
Hi Josh,

The logos, as you’ve defined it in a previous post:

“the Logos is . . . the creative expression/thought [essentially mind] (you can look at many exegetical and lexographical sources that support that interpretation for logos) of Godâ€Â.

What became flesh (not, “whoâ€Â) was “the word†(Greek = logos). I agree with your above point Josh. The logos is, just as you’ve offered, “the creative expression/ thought – of Godâ€Â. This is what, “became fleshâ€Â, in Christ. God’s creative expressions / thoughts (like the known universe for instance) have been manifested through God envisioning them first, and subsequently bringing them into existence.

“By the word of the Lord were the heavens createdâ€Â. God’s “creative expression / thought†culminated in the creation of that which God foresaw in his “mind†and which He then brought into being. What God had in his mind as his “creative expression / thought†is synonymous with God’s “plansâ€Â. “I know the plans I have for you, says the LORD . . .†It is the same way in terms of how the logos applies to Jesus. You pointed out to me in a previous post,

“You do not propose how an inanimate "plan" becomes flesh . . .â€Â

To illustrate in more familiar terms, it’s very similar to an architect who envisions a building in his own mind. He foreknows / predestines the building in his thoughts to look and function a certain way. This “logos†of the building – the creative expression / thought of the architect, can only “become flesh†(come into existence) when the building is actually built. Just so, God’s son can only come into existence when he is born. Jesus is not the son of God before he’s born, he’s the son of God because he’s born.

Regarding 1 Corinthians 8:6 you said to me,

Nice try, but terribly out of context. That verse has an A & B section (as they commonly call it). The end half (the B part) is a singualar unit and refers specifically to Jesus: "and one Lord, Jesus Christ, by whom are all things, and we exist through Him" (1 Corinthians 8:6). Can't run from that. Once again, you have some explaning to do if you wish to justify your position.

The justification that God is “oneâ€Â, not “three†is found in the “A†part of the verse. “yet for us there is one God, the Father . . .†This echoes Jesus’ own creed that the Father alone is the only true God. (cf. John 17:3). What you’re attempting to do, I think, is to make “Lord†synonymous with “God Almighty†in a passage where it isn’t warranted. The Greek word for Lord is kyrios. It’s used of men other than Jesus on various occasions in Scripture. In terms of 1 Corinithians 8:6, the term “Lord†or “lord†is best understood as “masterâ€Â. Yes, Jesus is “Lord†(not Lord God Amighty) – and Jesus’ being “master†or “lord†is because that’s what God made him to be:

Acts 2:36 “Therefore let all the house of Israel know for certain that God has made him both Lord and Christ – this Jesus whom you crucified.â€Â

As for Colossians 1:16, your mention of words like ââor†and “throughâ€Â, used with reference to Jesus and creation, only bolsters the point I’m making, in my opinion. If I say that I made a cake “for†you, that doesn’t mean that you made the cake. If I say a picture was taken “by†my camera, that doesn’t mean that the camera composed the image. When God says he made the world “through†his son, it doesn’t mean his son made the world. Like you, I’m not sure what else to say about this. We simply disagree.

Grace and peace.
David
 
As for Colossians 1:16, your mention of words like “for†and “throughâ€Â, used with reference to Jesus and creation, only bolsters the point I’m making, in my opinion. If I say that I made a cake “for†you, that doesn’t mean that you made the cake. If I say a picture was taken “by†my camera, that doesn’t mean that the camera composed the image. When God says he made the world “through†his son, it doesn’t mean his son made the world. Like you, I’m not sure what else to say about this. We simply disagree.
I'm going to jump in quickly here.

The main point you are missing regarding Col. 1:16 is the whole context in which it is used:

16 For by Him all things were created that are in heaven and that are on earth, visible and invisible, whether thrones or dominions or principalities or powers. All things were created through Him and for Him. 17 And He is before all things, and in Him all things consist.

Verse 17b alone shows an atttibute of God -- Christ is shown as sustainer of all things. But the main point is that everything that was made was made "by" or "through" Christ. The obvious logical conclusion is that Christ is therefore not made, he is eternal which is an attribute of God alone.

This also completely agress with John 1:1-3:

1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 He was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made through Him, and without Him nothing was made that was made.

Again, since "nothing was made that was made" without Christ, one can logically conclude that Christ was not made.
 
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