V
Vanguard
Guest
I see where a lot of people prefer the KJV, or some even declare that the KJV is THE ONLY version you should be using. Instead of having a dozen different posts all over the place about how it is right, others are wrong, etc., why don't we have a centralized thread where discussions about the KJV take place?
Please keep this thread civil and factual.
I'll start it off with some background history:
Following Martin Luther and the start of the Protestant Reformation in 1517 AD...
The KJV (which was actually the 2nd revision, 3rd penning) started in 1604 by the Church of England (CoE), and it was finished in 1611. Commissioned by James I of England, the translation had 47 scholars working on it, all of whom were members of the Church of England.
Note: the CoE was the breakaway movement from the Roman Catholic Church (RCC), put into motion by King Henry VIII, after the Pope in Rome denied his request for an annulment of his marriage to Catherine.
The sources for the 1611 KJV were the Hebrew Masoretic Text for the Old Testament (with some Septuagint readings), the Greek Textus Receptus for the NT (with some Latin Vulgate readings), and it included the Apocrypha (extra 7 books; no longer in the modern KJV). The sources for the Apocrypha were the Greek Septuagint and the Latin Vulgate.
A study of linguistics will show that the "Shakespearean" style of writing does not have a direct correlation to the Hebrew and Greek, but it was the formal style of writing at the time, hence the phrasing used [thou, thee, verily, whosoever, believeth, etc,]. The authors wanted to make it sound formal and presentable for public speaking [for that era].
The KJV has had over 10 different revisions in English, not including children's versions. From 1611 to 2011, archaeology and computer technology have made available far more resources for translation and cross referencing, than what was present in the early 17th century. Modern translations tend to use the "Alexandrian" family of texts, not the "Byzantine" family like the KJV did.
Please keep this thread civil and factual.
I'll start it off with some background history:
Following Martin Luther and the start of the Protestant Reformation in 1517 AD...
The KJV (which was actually the 2nd revision, 3rd penning) started in 1604 by the Church of England (CoE), and it was finished in 1611. Commissioned by James I of England, the translation had 47 scholars working on it, all of whom were members of the Church of England.
Note: the CoE was the breakaway movement from the Roman Catholic Church (RCC), put into motion by King Henry VIII, after the Pope in Rome denied his request for an annulment of his marriage to Catherine.
The sources for the 1611 KJV were the Hebrew Masoretic Text for the Old Testament (with some Septuagint readings), the Greek Textus Receptus for the NT (with some Latin Vulgate readings), and it included the Apocrypha (extra 7 books; no longer in the modern KJV). The sources for the Apocrypha were the Greek Septuagint and the Latin Vulgate.
A study of linguistics will show that the "Shakespearean" style of writing does not have a direct correlation to the Hebrew and Greek, but it was the formal style of writing at the time, hence the phrasing used [thou, thee, verily, whosoever, believeth, etc,]. The authors wanted to make it sound formal and presentable for public speaking [for that era].
The KJV has had over 10 different revisions in English, not including children's versions. From 1611 to 2011, archaeology and computer technology have made available far more resources for translation and cross referencing, than what was present in the early 17th century. Modern translations tend to use the "Alexandrian" family of texts, not the "Byzantine" family like the KJV did.
