The Stamp of 7 upon the King James Bible.

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The number 7 is an often-repeated number in King James Bible but not many people know that many important words and phrases in the KJV bible also appear in multiples of 7. Counting the number of times a word appears in the KJV Bible can be a delight and a source of increased confidence in the Word of God. So lets take a look at a list, Enjoy;

“God” – 4081 times = (7x583)

“God of Israel” - 203 times = (7x23)

“Lord God” – 546 times = (7x78)

“God Almighty & Almighty God” – 14 times = (7x2)

“Most High” – 49 times = (7x7)

“Word of God” – 49 times = (7x7)

“Thunders” – 7 times = (7x1)

“Book(s)” – 196 times =(7x28)

“Book”- 42times in the NT – (7x6)

“Kingdom of God” – 70 times = (7x10)

“King” (caped) – 70 times = (7x10)

“son of man” – 196 times = (7x28)

“Jesus Christ” – 196 times = (7x28)

“Jesus” – 980 times = (7x40)

“Beloved Son” – 7 times = (7x1)

“Forgive” – 56 times = (7x8)

“Forgiven” – 42 times = (7x6)

“Forgiveness” – 7 times (7x1)

“Forgive in all it’s forms” – 112 times = (7x16)

“Reconciled” – 7 times = (7x1)

“Confess” – 28 times = (7x4)

“Confessed” – 7 times) = (7x1)

“Favour” – 70 times = (7x10)

“Sanctify” – 70 times = (7x10)

“Wool” – 14 times =(7x2)

“Consecrate” – 14 times = (7x2)

“Consecrated” – 14 times = (7x2)

“Holy Spirit” – 7 times = (7x1)

“Message” – 7 times = (7x1)

“Gospel of God” – 7 times = (7x1)

“Finished” – 42 times = (7x6)

“Church” – 77 times = (7x11)

“Bride” – 14 times = (7x2)

“In Christ” – 77 times = (7x11)

“Baptize and variants” – 77 times = (7x11)

“Witnesses” – 49 times = (7x7)

“Tabernacle of the Congregation” – 133 times = (7x19)

“Passover(s)” – 77 times = (7x11)

“Husbandman” – 7 times = (7x1)

“Peculiar” – 7 times = (7x1)

“Workmanship” – 7 times = (7x1)

“Assembly” – 49 times = (7x7)

“Fishers” – 7 times = (7x1)

“Kinsmen” – 7 times = (7x1)

“Daughter of Zion (Sion)” – 28 times = (7x4)

“Daughter of Jerusalem” – 7 times = (7x1)

“Children of Israel” – 644 times = (7x92)

“Weeks” – 28 times = (7x4)

“Rested” – 21 times = (7x3)

“Seventh Day & Seventh Month” – 77 times in the OT = (7x11)

“Angel of the Lord” – 56 times in the OT = (7x9)

“Sabbath” – 77 times in the OT = (7x11) Note: 7 letters in the word.

“Seven times” – 35 times = (7x5)

“Seven Days” – 98 times = (7x14)

“Seven Years” – 42 times = (7x6)

“Perfectly” – 7 times = (7x1)

“Mount of God & Mountain of God” – 7 times = (7x1)

“Works of God” – 7 times = (7x1)

“Power of God” – 14 times = (7x2)

“Ends of the Earth” – 28 times = (7x4)

“The end of the World” – 7 times = (7x1)

“Thus saieth the Lord of Hosts” – 70 times = (7x10)



All Praise The Ancient of Days

 

[TOG]

It also contains the word "Easter" once (7 to the power of 0, if you like). A rather glaring mistake by the translators, since the manuscripts say "Passover".

Anyway... It's a big book, and you can find things like that in any book that size if you look for it hard enough.

The TOG​

 

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No the reference to Easter was correct. Because it was referring to Easter the pagan festival not the Passover.

 

[TOG]

No the reference to Easter was correct. Because it was referring to Easter the pagan festival not the Passover.

That's your interpretation (actually, I'd call it more of an excuse). The manuscripts all say "Passover". In Greek, the word is"πασχα" (transliterated "Pascha"), which means "Passover". It is derived from the Hebrew word for Passover, which is "Pesach". Do you really think that Greeks used the name of a Jewish festival for their Pagan fertility festival? I'm sure they had their own name for it, although I don't know what it was. I'm sure it wasn't called Passover.

The TOG​

 

[Malachi]

It also contains the word "Easter" once (7 to the power of 0, if you like). A rather glaring mistake by the translators, since the manuscripts say "Passover".

While it is true that the word should have been "Passover" for pesach, Passover and Easter were (and are) simultaneous, and for whatever reason, the KJV translators applied a word which would make sense to English readers at the time. While it is not precise, it is not exactly a gross error. And to denigrate the Authorized Version for this little deviation (NOT a "glaring error") is neither fair nor beneficial.

In contrast, the serious deficiencies of modern translations have doctrinal implications, and this is where the focus should be. As a glaring error, you can go to 1 Timothy 3:16, and you will discover that all the modern bibles have replaced "God" with either "he" or "who", which allows Unitarians to insist that this is proof that Jesus is not God. The JW's love this and adopted the same Greek text for their NWT.

Because this matter was so serious, Dean John William Burgon wrote a 77 page dissertation on this error (found in his book The Revision Revised) to prove from every available manuscript and translation that the correct Greek word was THEOS (abbreviated) and that should have remained.

Most Christians today have no idea that their modern translations are based on Gnostic perversions of the Greek NT.

 

[TOG]

While it is true that the word should have been "Passover" for pesach, Passover and Easter were (and are) simultaneous,

Passover and Easter can, because of the way they are calculated, never be simultaneous (i.e. they can never be on the same day) and they can in fact be separated by an entire month. They are most often within a week of each other, but that is not what is being discussed here, but the confusion between a biblical festival commanded by God and a Pagan fertility celebration. You may think that replacing the biblical festival with the Pagan one is "close enough", but I don't.

and for whatever reason, the KJV translators applied a word which would make sense to English readers at the time.

So, when the translators of the KJV modified the text so that it would make sense to (then) modern readers, that was okay, but when translators today use language that modern readers can understand, then it's changing God's Word and the resulting text is a perversion. I don't suppose you'd care to explain to us what the difference is?[/QUOTE]

While it is not precise, it is not exactly a gross error.

Replacing a reference to a biblical festival commanded by God with a reference to a Pagan fertility rite is not merely imprecise. It is most definitely gross error. And it wasn't done on purpose to make the text more understandable. If that was the case, then why did they translate the same word as "Passover" in every other place where it appeared? The reason is simple. The Christian celebration of Christ's resurrection had become so mixed with the Pagan fertility festival that the two had become indistinguishable from each other. You can try all you want, but there is no excuse for perverting a Christian celebration to such an extent that you can't tell it from a Pagan one.

And to denigrate the Authorized Version for this little deviation (NOT a "glaring error") is neither fair nor beneficial.

I don't denegrate the King James version. It's a translation like any other. It has both good and bad points. What I do object to is the worship of any single translation as if it were the only correct Word of God.

In contrast, the serious deficiencies of modern translations have doctrinal implications, and this is where the focus should be. As a glaring error, you can go to 1 Timothy 3:16, and you will discover that all the modern bibles have replaced "God" with either "he" or "who", which allows Unitarians to insist that this is proof that Jesus is not God. The JW's love this and adopted the same Greek text for their NWT.

Because this matter was so serious, Dean John William Burgon wrote a 77 page dissertation on this error (found in his book The Revision Revised) to prove from every available manuscript and translation that the correct Greek word was THEOS (abbreviated) and that should have remained.

Most Christians today have no idea that their modern translations are based on Gnostic perversions of the Greek NT.

Not all the manuscripts have the word "theos" in that verse. And leaving out the word "God" from this one verse doesn't in any way diminish Christ's position in the Godhead. Words like "he" and "who" always have to refer back to someone who had been named previously. In this case, the only person named shortly before that verse is God, so that must be who it's referring to.

The TOG​

 

[jasonc]

we love to argue.

 

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That's your interpretation (actually, I'd call it more of an excuse). The manuscripts all say "Passover". In Greek, the word is"πασχα" (transliterated "Pascha"), which means "Passover". It is derived from the Hebrew word for Passover, which is "Pesach". Do you really think that Greeks used the name of a Jewish festival for their Pagan fertility festival? I'm sure they had their own name for it, although I don't know what it was. I'm sure it wasn't called Passover.

The TOG​

I believe you have been shown either the wrong text or have been sold a wrong translation. I never said the romans used the word easter for the passover. They used the word Easter for their Easter pagan festival. Passover was already over in the scriptures where the Word easter is used. They where already into the days of Unleavened Bread the passover comes before the 7 days of Unleavened Bread. So The Easter refereed to in the scripture could not have been the passover because Herod was still waiting for Easter to happen

Acts 12
1 Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church.2 And he killed James the brother of John with the sword.

3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)

4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

 

[TOG]

I believe you have been shown either the wrong text or have been sold a wrong translation. I never said the romans used the word easter for the passover. They used the word Easter for their Easter pagan festival.

I never said they used the word Easter for Passover. Quite the opposite. The word that the KJV replaces with "Easter" (it's not a translation) is, in every extant manuscript, "Pascha". That's the Greek word for Passover. By saying that that word referred to Easter, you are saying that they used the word for the biblical festival to refer to a Pagan festival. Luke was very precise in everything he wrote. If he had meant Easter, he would have said Easter.

Passover was already over in the scriptures where the Word easter is used. They where already into the days of Unleavened Bread the passover comes before the 7 days of Unleavened Bread. So The Easter refereed to in the scripture could not have been the passover because Herod was still waiting for Easter to happen

Acts 12
1 Now about that time Herod the king stretched forth his hands to vex certain of the church.2 And he killed James the brother of John with the sword.

3 And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.)

4 And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people.

The term Passover was (and still is) used to refer to both the day itself and the days of unleavened bread. We often do something similar today. When someone says he's going out of town to visit his family for Thanksgiving, that usually doesn't mean he'll only be there for one day, even though, technically, Thanksgiving is only one day. More likely, it means he'll be there for the entire Thanksgiving weekend.

The TOG​

 

[jasonc]

I never said they used the word Easter for Passover. Quite the opposite. The word that the KJV replaces with "Easter" (it's not a translation) is, in every extant manuscript, "Pascha". That's the Greek word for Passover. By saying that that word referred to Easter, you are saying that they used the word for the biblical festival to refer to a Pagan festival. Luke was very precise in everything he wrote. If he had meant Easter, he would have said Easter.



The term Passover was (and still is) used to refer to both the day itself and the days of unleavened bread. We often do something similar today. When someone says he's going out of town to visit his family for Thanksgiving, that usually doesn't mean he'll only be there for one day, even though, technically, Thanksgiving is only one day. More likely, it means he'll be there for the entire Thanksgiving weekend.

The TOG​

as you know, peshac is one week long. not counting the omer countdown that is part of that feast.

 

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I never said they used the word Easter for Passover. Quite the opposite. The word that the KJV replaces with "Easter" (it's not a translation) is, in every extant manuscript, "Pascha". That's the Greek word for Passover. By saying that that word referred to Easter, you are saying that they used the word for the biblical festival to refer to a Pagan festival. Luke was very precise in everything he wrote. If he had meant Easter, he would have said Easter.



The term Passover was (and still is) used to refer to both the day itself and the days of unleavened bread. We often do something similar today. When someone says he's going out of town to visit his family for Thanksgiving, that usually doesn't mean he'll only be there for one day, even though, technically, Thanksgiving is only one day. More likely, it means he'll be there for the entire Thanksgiving weekend.

The TOG​

Then you have got the wrong manuscript. The KJV was not translated from that manuscript.

In the OT passover was a one day event. It does not matter what the Jews of today call passover. In the Bible passover is a one day event. The 7 days of unleavened bread is a separate event.

 

[TOG]

Then you have got the wrong manuscript. The KJV was not translated from that manuscript.

The KJV was translated from the Textus Receptus, which has...

ον και πιασας εθετο εις φυλακην παραδους τεσσαρσιν τετραδιοις στρατιωτων φυλασσειν αυτον βουλομενος μετα το πασχα αναγαγειν αυτον τω λαω (Acts 12:3 Textus Receptus)

That's the text the KJV was translated from, and it clearly says "Pascha", or Passover.

In the OT passover was a one day event. It does not matter what the Jews of today call passover. In the Bible passover is a one day event. The 7 days of unleavened bread is a separate event.

But to the writers of the New Testament, "Passover" referred to the entire Passover season, which included the days of unleavened bread. Besides the example I mentioned about Thanksgiving, I can show another modern example of using the name of one day to refer to a longer period of time. Here in Iceland, there are 4 official holidays in December - Christmas Eve, Christmas Day, the Second Day of Christmas (called "Boxing Day" in some countries) and New Years Eve. Because there are often only 2 or 3 working days between the Second Day of Christmas and New Years Eve, many people take those days off as well, and when people say that they're going out of town to visit for Christmas, they mean the entire week from the 24th to the 31st.

There is nothing unusual about using the name of a one day holiday to refer to an entire holiday season. We do it today all the time, and people did it back then as well. What we have to realize is that the Bible isn't written in some special holy theological language that is found nowhere else and that can be understood hyper-literally and where deep theological meaning can be attributed to every single word. It was written in the normal every day language of the time, mostly Hebrew for the Old Testament and mostly Greek fro the New Testament. So, when Luke wrote "Passover", he meant it to be understood the way people of that time would have understood it, which was the entire Passover season.

But aside from the question of whether Luke knew the difference between Passover and Easter or not, the fact remains that "the stamp of seven" means nothing. Every non-prime number is a multiple of 2 or more prime numbers, and since 7 is one of the lowest prime numbers there is (only 2, 3 and 5 are lower), it is one of the most common divisors there is. Every 7th number there is is divisible by 7, and with a book the size of the Bible, it's going to show up a lot. The same could be done for any book of a comparable size.

The TOG​

 

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For those interested this utube video explains things in greater detail.

 

[Dewey]

Yes, the KJV is correct in saying "Easter" in Acts 12:4, after all the passover was already over. How do we know? Because the verse before it said, "then were the days of unleavened bread." The days of unleavened bread occur after the passover; Easter however, was yet to come. So once again God's word (KJV) is falsely attacked.