using the law properly

[RichardBurger]

(this was not written by me but I believe it to be true)

Romans 3:31: Do we, then, nullify the law by this faith? Not at all! Rather, we uphold the law.

Those who preach law inevitably use this single verse at the end of the chapter of Romans 3 to try and prove that Christ is NOT the end of the law; that those who believe in Jesus Christ are still under the law; that even though people believe, they are still under the supervision of the law.

The first mistake is surgically removing a single verse from its proper setting. This is a favorite technique of SDAs and others who preach law, and, indeed, most of the "unique" doctrines of SDAism are created using this "cut-and-paste" type of bibliology. Some verses of Scripture are, indeed, independent, and their meaning remains the same in or out of context--such as "God so loved the world that He gave His only begotten Son that whoever believes in Him will not perish but have eternal life." This verse means the same thing in or out of context. But the 31st verse of Romans 3 cannot be separated from its context, or else it appears to take on a different meaning. But, unfortunately, it is used more often out of context than in.
31 Do we, then, nullify the law by this faith? Not at all! Rather, we uphold the law.
And those who quote it immediately set their own interpretation on what it means to "uphold the law," which is nearly always that we keep the law by faith.

It should be a red flag for any serious student of the Scriptures when someone consistently offers only isolated proof texts without any consideration of the context. Sometimes only a few verses of context is required. Sometimes much more is needed. In this case, how can someone address what it means to "uphold" the law if one does not take into consideration what the purpose of the law actually is?

Paul says this about using the law in I Timothy:
8 We know that the law is good if one uses it properly. 9 We also know that law is made not for the righteous but for lawbreakers and rebels, the ungodly and sinful, the unholy and irreligious; for those who kill their fathers or mothers, for murderers, 10 for adulterers and perverts, for slave traders and liars and perjurers–and for whatever else is contrary to the sound doctrine 11 that conforms to the glorious gospel of the blessed God, which he entrusted to me.

So what is the "proper" use of the law? Let's look at this verse itself:
We also know that the law is not made for the righteous..."

This not only answers the question as to whether Jesus was subject to the law, but also those who trust in Him. Are we not "righteous through faith" when we believe in the salvation that He offers? Are we not accounted holy before God? This, I believe, is exactly what Paul meant when he wrote:
Christ is the end of the law that there may be righteousness for everyone who believes.

Christ is the end of the law so that there MAY be righteousness for all who believe.
Christ is the end of the law for righteousness because we are ALREADY righteous before God in Him, and the law was not made for the righteous.

To place the believer back under the law is not a proper use of the law. It is also an abrogation of that faith which tells us that Christ is, indeed, the end of the law.

In summary:
1. The law is good if it is used properly.
2. The law was not made for the righteous. Those who are in Christ are righteous--by faith.
3. Thus, to place those who are righteous by faith under the law is an improper use of the law.
4. One cannot "uphold" the law if one uses it improperly.

http://groups.yahoo.com/group/gospelchat

 

[DrFrank]

"Are we not accounted holy before God?" Only if we follow Jesus' teachings which we need to regard as absolute laws.This is NOT what I believe is being "accounted holy":
Hebrews 6:4-6 (New King James Version)

4 For it is impossible for those who were once enlightened, and have tasted the heavenly gift, and have become partakers of the Holy Spirit, 5 and have tasted the good word of God and the powers of the age to come, 6 if they fall away,to renew them again to repentance, since they crucify again for themselves the Son of God, and put Him to an open shame. :o

 

[Dave...]

Exactly! Context...here's more, Romans 3...

"19-20 Now we know that whatever the law says, it says to those who are under the law, that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin."

"all the world" in that passage is speaking of both Jew and Gentile (2:14-16). Anyone who does not trust in Jesus Christ, in faith, is under the Law. For that reason Grace and Law are contrasted in scripture, just as works and Grace are contrasted.

When we trust in our own works, or our own righteousness, to justify ourselves before God, we are rejecting faith in Jesus Christ, His work and His righteousness, and putting ourselves under the Law, condemned. That's why "Jesus Christ is the end of the Law for righteousness for all who believe" (Romans 10:3-4). "and be found in Him, not having my own righteousness, which is from the law, but that which is through faith in Christ, the righteousness which is from God by faith;"(Phil. 3:9) etc...

A few quotes that I like...I believe that Martin Luther understood...

"There are three ways in which the Law may be abused. First, by the self-righteous hypocrites who fancy that they can be justified by the Law. Secondly, by those who claim that Christian liberty exempts a Christian from the observance of the Law. "These," says Peter, "use their liberty for a cloak of maliciousness," and bring the name of the Gospel into ill repute. Thirdly, the Law is meant to drive us to Christ. When the Law is properly used it's value cannot be too highly appraised. It will take me to Christ every time."

".... I fear that after our time the right handling of the Law will become a lost art. Even now, although we continually explain the separate functions of the Law and the Gospel,we have those among us who do not understand how the Law should be used. What will it be like when we are dead and gone?

He explained elsewhere..

"As long as a person is not a murderer, adulterer, thief, he would swear that he is righteous. How is God going to humble such a person except by Law. The Law is the hammer of death, the thunder of hell and the thunder of God's wrath to bring down the proud and shameless hypocrites. When the Law was instituted on Mount Sinai it was accompanied by lightning, by storms, by the sound of trumpets, to tear to pieces that monster called self righteousness. As long as a person thinks he is right he is going to be incomprehensibly proud and presumptuous. He is going to hate God, despise His grace and mercy, and ignore the promises in Christ. The Gospel of free forgiveness of sins through Christ will never appeal to the self-righteous. This monster of self-righteousness, this stiff necked beast, needs a big axe. And that is what the Law is, a big axe. Accordingly the proper use and function of the Law is to threaten until the conscience is scared stiff."

A puritan author Samuel Bolton said it best...

"The Law sends us to the Gospel, that we may be justified, and the Gospel sends us to the law again to inquire what is our duty in being justified."

Calvin said...

"The third principal use, which pertains more more closely to the proper purpose of the law, finds its place among believers in whose hearts the Spirit of God already lives and reigns. For even though they have the law written and engraved upon their hearts by the finger of God [ Jeremiah 31:33; Hebrews 10:16], that is, have been so moved and quickened through the directing of the Spirit that they long to obey God, they still profit by the law. (institutes, 2.7.12)"


The Law has it's place, even for believers, but not for justification. All who are under the Law stand condemned by it. We are under grace. We are saved by Grace, through faith, not of ourselves; it is the gift of God, not of works, lest anyone should boast.

And speaking of context, Romans 3...21-26

21-26 But now the righteousness of God apart from the law is revealed, being witnessed by the Law and the Prophets, even the righteousness of God, through faith in Jesus Christ, to all and on all[h] who believe. For there is no difference; 23 for all have sinned and fall short of the glory of God,

being justified freely by His grace-through the redemption that is in Christ Jesus,-

whom God set forth as a propitiation by His blood, through faith, to demonstrate His righteousness, because in His forbearance God had passed over the sins that were previously committed, to demonstrate at the present time His righteousness, that He might be just and the justifier of the one who has faith in Jesus.

 

[Drew]

Exactly! Context...here's more, Romans 3...

"19-20 Now we know that whatever the law says, it says to those who are under the law, that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin."

"all the world" in that passage is speaking of both Jew and Gentile (2:14-16). Anyone who does not trust in Jesus Christ, in faith, is under the Law.

No. The law in this particular text is the Law of Moses and it is only the Jew who is under the Law of Moses.

Now people will argue that Paul cannot mean “Law of Moses†(Torah) here when he uses the tem “lawâ€. That argument goes like this: The “so that†connective strongly implies that “law†is something that all mankind is under. So since Torah is for Jews only, Paul must be referring here to some general principle of law, and not Torah.

I think that this is a mistake for at least three reasons:

1. Paul almost always uses the word “Law†to denote the Law of Moses, so why we would he do otherwise here?

2. The phrase “it says to those under the law†strongly suggests that he is talking about a “law†that is limited in its applicability. Otherwise, this qualifier is entirely unnecessary;

3. The context provided by verses 1-18 support a “Torah†reading, specific to Jews, for the word “lawâ€

I will not make the case for point number 1 right here – that would be too lengthy a treatment and that case is made elsewhere. Point 2, I suggest, requires no further elaboration. So I now turn to point number 3 in relation to the understandable objection that it seems that the “so that the whole world….†clause makes it clear that this is some kind of universal law.

So why does he then talk about the whole world being accountable to God if “law†here is Torah, which is for Jews only. One needs to look at the preceding 18 verses where Paul has engaged in separate treatments of Jew and Gentile being sinners.

Here is the important point: He has just finished (in verses 9-18) an argument that the Gentile is a sinner just like the Jew. So his statement about the whole world being accountable is not only in relation to what he has just written about the Law - that could not be true since the Gentiles were never under the Law - but it is rather the capstone of his whole argument.

So Paul's basic point is this:

1. The Jews have been faithless (verses 1-8);

2. The Gentiles, too, are sinners (verses 9-18);

3. While the Law speaks only to those under the Law - the Jews - the whole world nevertheless stands condemned before God.

 

[Drew]

Exactly! Context...here's more, Romans 3...

"19-20 Now we know that whatever the law says, it says to those who are under the law, that every mouth may be stopped, and all the world may become guilty before God. Therefore by the deeds of the law no flesh will be justified in His sight, for by the law is the knowledge of sin."

"all the world" in that passage is speaking of both Jew and Gentile (2:14-16). Anyone who does not trust in Jesus Christ, in faith, is under the Law.

I agree that "all the world" here refers to both Jew and Gentile. But, and as per my last post, this does not mean that "law" here refers to something that the Gentile is under (as well as the Jew).

You have to remember the context - in the first 18 verses Paul has first said that the Jew has fallen and then that the Gentile has fallen short. So indeed all are condemned, but most certainly not all are under the Law of Moses - that "law" is for Jews only as should be clear from stuff later in this chapter.

If you take these two verses out of context, they can read as suggesting that Jew and Gentile are under the same "law". But, in context, this cannot be the case.

 

[Drew]

(this was not written by me but I believe it to be true)

Romans 3:31: Do we, then, nullify the law by this faith? Not at all! Rather, we uphold the law.

Those who preach law inevitably use this single verse at the end of the chapter of Romans 3 to try and prove that Christ is NOT the end of the law; that those who believe in Jesus Christ are still under the law; that even though people believe, they are still under the supervision of the law.

Ther error is to read Romans 3:31 as affirming that the written code of the Law of Moses - the Torah - is still in effect. It is clear from other Pauline writings that the Law of Moses is now done with.

But, we need to take Paul seriously in 3:31 - so there is indeed a "law" that has been established. I will not give my opinion on what that "law" is except to assert that it is definitely not the written code of the Law of Moses, a system of law given to Jews and Jews only.

 

[Drew]

The Law has it's place, even for believers, but not for justification. All who are under the Law stand condemned by it. We are under grace. We are saved by Grace, through faith, not of ourselves; it is the gift of God, not of works, lest anyone should boast.

The works in Ephesians 2:8-9 are the works of the Law of Moses, not some "law" that everyone is under. This has been extensively argued in the past, but we can look at the arguments again. The Law of Moses, was never for the whole world - it was clearly given to Jews and Jews only (and the handful of miscellaneous Gentiles who were embedded in Israel).

When Paul speaks of not being justified by the "law" or by "works", he is making a pointed and specific statement about Jews.