Vince's Boring Thesis on Divorce Part 2

[Vince]

Folks, please keep personal attacks, insults, and name-calling off this thread. I have heavily researched the Biblical teaching on divorce and remarriage, and some Christians need to understand these subjects without being interrupted by conflicts.

 

[Vince]

DEUTERONOMY 24:1-2 PART 3

1 If a man marries a woman and she does not please him because he has found something offensive in her, then he may draw up a divorce document, give it to her, and evict her from his house. 2 When she has left him she may go and become someone else's wife.

It helps matters to realize that if an Old Testament wife committed adultery,
the death penalty was MANDATORY: Lev. 20:10 "The man who commits
adultery with another man's wife, he who commits adultery with his
neighbor's wife, the adulterer and the adulteress, shall surely be put to
death." An Old Testament Jew whose wife committed adultery was not
allowed to divorce her or put her away; she had to be executed. However,
there could be a problem with eyewitnesses.

Numbers 35:30 forbids executing a murderer on the testimony of a single
witness, but then adds: "...one witness is not sufficient testimony against a
person for the death penalty." Deuteronomy 17:6 commands the execution
of Israelites who turn to other gods, but it requires two or three witnesses
before..."Whoever is deserving of death shall be put to death..."

Deuteronomy 19:15 commands "One witness shall not rise against a man
concerning any iniquity or any sin that he commits; by the mouth of two or
three witnesses the matter shall be established." So although the adulterous
wife was commanded to be executed, actually finding two or three
eyewitnesses might be impossible.

In Numbers 5:11-27, there is a test for a woman whose husband accuses her
of adultery "... and there was no witness against her..." If she failed the
miraculous test, she would become seriously ill and become a curse among
her people, but she would still not be executed.

 

[Vince]

MATTHEW 5:31-32

In the King James Version, Jesus refers to Deut. 24:1-2, explaining that a
man could only put away his wife for fornication. This would agree with the
meaning of the Hebrew word for "uncleanness" in the passage.

In the second part of Matt. 5:32, the KJV has Jesus saying "Whosoever
marrieth her that is divorced committeth adultery." The Greek word
translated "divorced" is "apoluo." It is not translated "divorced" anywhere
else that it appears on the Bible. It is formed from the word "luo" and refers
to being set free. The word cannot possibly mean "divorced." It refers here
to a woman whose husband has put her away without giving her a writing of
divorcement. In similar passages, the KJV translates it "put away."

 

[Guest]

Folks, please keep personal attacks, insults, and name-calling off this thread. I have heavily researched the Biblical teaching on divorce and remarriage, and some Christians need to understand these subjects without being interrupted by conflicts.

Just to know, Vince, are you wanting responses or not ?
I dont want to interrupt if you are just trying to lay out your views (altho I definitely dont agree with some of your assertions/conclusions), but if youre looking for input I think some of us can offer some without any problem (assuming everyone does the same).

Were you wanting imput or not ?

 

[shad]

18Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from her husband committeth adultery. Luke16

Above is Jesus' word that most pastors and priests don't like to talk about in their sermon. Just because we can divorce our spouse due to their adultery does not make it alright to remarry according to Jesus.

 

[Guest]

18Whosoever putteth away his wife, and marrieth another, committeth adultery: and whosoever marrieth her that is put away from her husband committeth adultery. Luke16

Above is Jesus' word that most pastors and priests don't like to talk about in their sermon. Just because we can divorce our spouse due to their adultery does not make it alright to remarry according to Jesus.

The exception clause includes both the divorce AND the remarriage.
If it didnt then adultery wouldnt be mentioned now would it ? Cant commit adultery (supposedly) if they dont REmarry (except for...)
Logical...consistent......

Mat 5:32 But I say to you that whoever shall put away his wife, except for the cause of fornication, causes her to commit adultery*. And whoever shall marry her who is put away commits adultery.

Mat 19:9 And I say to you, Whoever shall put away his wife, except for fornication, and shall marry another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is put away commits adultery.

Notice in both passages that the ‘marry another’ issue is simply an extention of the beginning of the statement, no separation is indicated in the text whatsoever. It is a continual thought and statement that very clearly is a whole that includes both the putting away and the ‘marry another’ part.

>>>> “Committeth adultery†The Present Indicative deception

 

[jasoncran]

with the histories of the parties involved in this divorce topic, i see the need to shut this down. and lets not start another thread of this nature till a mod or admin approves it.