Was it God or Jesus who talked to Adam and Eve in the Garden

[Godbless]

The question should be: Was it God or the Word who talked to Adam and Eve, since it was the Word (Greek: Logos ) who became Jesus Christ, approximately four thousand years later?
There is an abundance of evidence that the One who became Jesus was the Lord of the Old Testament. Let's examine the following scriptures:

"Thus says the Lord, the King of Israel, and his Redeemer, the Lord of hosts: 'I Am the First and I Am the Last; . . ." (Isaiah 44:6) " . . . and all drank the same spiritual drink. For they drank of that spiritual Rock that followed them, and that Rock was Christ." (1Corinthians 10:4)

So far the evidence is that "the Lord, the King of Israel, and his Redeemer", of the first Scripture was the same person as "that spiritual Rock that followed them, . . . Christ. "
Additionally, we read in Revelation 1:11,

" . . . I Am the alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last . . . "

which is also stated in Isaiah 44:6. The first verse of Revelation 1 discloses that Jesus is the subject, the Revelator, and He says that He is the Alpha and the Omega, the First and the Last.
The most conclusive and unmistakable Scripture comes, again, from Jesus own testimony:

"No one has seen God at any time. The only begotten Son, who is in the bosom of the Father, He has declared Him." (John 1:18)

The answer is that it was the Word, who later became Jesus Christ, that walked and talked with Adam and Eve in the garden of Eden. I hope you will continue in the pursuit of God's Truth.

 

[kenan]

Nice explanation. I would have said that either God or Jesus (i.e. the Word) could have talked to Adam and Eve because the Word was with God and the Word was God, so it could've been an either/or, but your explanation is better.

But does that mean that Jesus's name is YHWH, because the God of the Old Testament says that he was not known by his name Jehovah (that is YHWH) until he spoke to Moses. Or was Jesus the mediator (i.e. the middle party) between God and man, i.e. Jesus was saying the words of God because only He has seen God? Also, does the use of 'seen' also imply 'heard', and if not, is it possible that the invisible God could've talked to man because he does not have to be seen to be heard?