Was the Gospel preached to the inhabited world pre-AD70?

[Lehigh3]

The ends of the ages had come as the writer of Hebrews states:Heb.9:26 NKJV,
26 He then would have had to suffer often since the foundation of the world; but now, once at the end of the ages, He has appeared to put away sin by the sacrifice of Himself.
The end of the Mosaic age was in AD70. The beginning of the "age to come" or Gospel age was about to be reality for the Church. Hebrews was written about AD65. But the law had not yet passed away while the temple made by hands was still standing.
Jesus said the gospel would be preached to all the world- then the "end" would come.

[FONT=ARIAL,HELVETICA,SANS-SERIF]Matthew 24:14 (NKJV) "And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in all the world as a witness to all the nations, and then the end will come." [/FONT]
​

[FONT=ARIAL,HELVETICA,SANS-SERIF]Remember the disciples' question? "What shall be the sign of your coming and of the end of the age?" What end is he talking about here? Unless we take this verse clear out of its setting, "the end" in view here is the end or destruction which was to come upon Jerusalem and the temple ending the Jewish age. Jerusalem would be destroyed, but "first" the gospel would be preached unto all nations. Did this happen? We have seen that everything else so far took place in the life time of the disciples, but did this? Was the gospel preached in all the world before AD 70?
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[FONT=ARIAL,HELVETICA,SANS-SERIF]Probably one of the most common beliefs among Christians is that once the gospel is preached to all the world, Christ will return and the world will end. Most believers would say that this verse has not yet been fulfilled, the gospel has not yet been preached to all the world. How do we know if it has? Well, Jesus said the end would come once the gospel was preached to all the world. And the end that is in view in this context, is the end of Jerusalem, the end of the Old Covenant age. Since Jerusalem was destroyed in AD 70, we can assume that the gospel was preached to all the world by then or we would have to believe that Jesus was mistaken. Which one can you live with? How can we find out if the gospel was preached in all the world before AD 70? We can go the Scriptures and see if they give us any insight to this matter. [/FONT]
[FONT=ARIAL,HELVETICA,SANS-SERIF]Remember what we saw in Matthew 24:9. Why would the apostles be hated in all nations if they had not preached the gospel in all nations? They were hated by all nations because they preached in all nations (Acts 17:6; 24:5). Paul declares that the gospel was preached to every creature under heaven (Colossians 1:5-6, 23). In Matthew 24:14, the Greek word for preached is kerusso, it is in the future tense. But in Colossians 1:23 the same word kerusso is in the past tense. Jesus said that it is to be preached and Paul says in AD 62, that it has been preached to every creature. The fact that Colossians was written in 62AD, 8 years before Jerusalem was destroyed, is proof that 70AD was the total fulfillment of this passage! [/FONT]
[FONT=ARIAL,HELVETICA,SANS-SERIF]Paul said that the gospel was made known to all nations (Romans 16:25-26). Paul also said that the faith of the Romans was spoken of throughout the whole world (Romans 1:5,8). We know that Paul traveled through Asia Minor, Greece, and Crete; that he was in Italy, and probably in Spain and Gaul (Romans 15:24-28). During this time the other apostles weren't sitting around idle; all the apostles went abroad and preached the gospel to everyone (Acts 8:1-5,14,25); and there is much proof that within thirty years after this prophecy was spoken, churches were established in all these regions (Acts 9:31). [/FONT]
[FONT=ARIAL,HELVETICA,SANS-SERIF]The following verses all fulfil Acts 1:8. Men from every nation heard Peter preach the gospel (Acts 2:5,9-11,14); and Peter said it was published throughout Judaea (Acts 10:37, 1 Pet.4:6). Paul says he fully preached the gospel (Romans 15:19; 16:19), and it appeared to all men (Titus 2:11.), and it was preached and believed on in the world (1 Timothy 3:16). In Romans 10:18, the word "world" is oikumene, same as Mat.24:24, and the word "earth" is ge, same as Acts 1:8. In Romans 16:25-26, the word "nations" is ethnos, same as Mark 13:10. In Colossians 1:6, the word "world" is kosmos, same as Mark 16:15. In Colossians 1:23, the word "creature" is ktisis, same as Mark 16:15. Hebrews 4:2 says the gospel was preached. [/FONT]
[FONT=ARIAL,HELVETICA,SANS-SERIF]Crysostom (375) wrote, "Therefore He added moreover, 'And this gospel shall be preached in the whole world for a witness to all nations, and then shall the end come,' of the downfall of Jerusalem. For in proof that He meant this, and that before the taking of Jerusalem the gospel was preached, hear what Paul saith, 'Their sound went into all the earth;' and again, 'The gospel which was preached to every creature which is under Heaven.' Which also is a very great sign of Christ's power, that in twenty or at most thirty years the word had reached the ends of the world. 'After this therefore,' saith He, 'shall come the end of Jerusalem.' For that He intimates this was manifested by what follows." [/FONT]
[FONT=ARIAL,HELVETICA,SANS-SERIF]Eusebius (325) wrote, "Thus, under the influence of heavenly power, and with the divine co-operation, the doctrine of the Saviour, like the rays of the sun, quickly illumined the whole world; and straightway, in accordance with the divine Scriptures, the voice of the inspired evangelists and apostles went forth through all the earth, and their words to the end of the world." (Book II, Ch.III.). [/FONT]
[FONT=ARIAL,HELVETICA,SANS-SERIF]The argument might be raised, "The apostles were saying that the Gospel had been preached to the world as they knew it, but the Gospel has to reach the world as we know it before Christ will return." First, where does the Scripture speak of Christ's words being fulfilled during the twentieth century as we know it? This is the world's way of trying to make the Bible fit their view. Second, why would the apostles even mention the fact of the Gospel reaching its destination if there was no prophetic significance? All that would do is confuse those to whom they were writing. After all, their readers were perfectly aware that Christ had predicted His return once the Gospel had been preached in these areas. What other predictions were there besides those of the Lord? From the Scripture we can be certain that all these predictions regarding the destination of the Gospel were fulfilled. [/FONT]
[FONT=ARIAL,HELVETICA,SANS-SERIF]Many today say that the gospel has not been preached to all the world and Matthew 24:14 has not yet been fulfilled. The Bible says that all the nations of the world heard the gospel preached before AD 70. Who are you going to believe? To deny that Matthew 24:14 has been fulfilled is to deny the clear statements of God's Holy Word; it is to call God a liar. [/FONT]
[FONT=ARIAL,HELVETICA,SANS-SERIF]Matthew 24:14 (NKJV) "And this gospel of the kingdom will be preached in all the world as a witness to all the nations, and then the end will come." [/FONT]
[FONT=ARIAL,HELVETICA,SANS-SERIF]"Then the end will come." The end of what? What were they asking about? The end of the temple and the Jewish age. He is not saying the world will end when everyone has heard the gospel, or that the Christian age will end. Jesus very clearly tells his disciples that before the temple would be destroyed and before His parousia and the end of the age, the gospel must be preached in all the world. And it was! The temple was destroyed! He arrived in full glory! The Old Covenant age ended! [/FONT]
[FONT=ARIAL,HELVETICA,SANS-SERIF]This does not mean that the gospel was not to be preached after the end had come. It was to be preached for ever and always. Notice the parable of the wedding feast (Matthew 22:1-7): Notice what he says to his servants after the city is destroyed (Matthew 22:8-10): We dwell in the New Jerusalem in the very presence of God and the invitation is still going out today. Notice the invitation that goes forth from the New Heaven and Earth (Revelation 22:17): I hope that you are faithfully proclaiming this message to everyone who is thirsty -- come!
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[FONT=ARIAL,HELVETICA,SANS-SERIF]http://www.ecclesia.org/truth/mat03.html
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[Pizzaguy]

If you (That means all of us) would separate paragraphs with a line (or carriage return) it would make reading these posts much easier. :yes

 

[reba]

Rom 1:8 First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for you all, that your faith is spoken of throughout the whole world.


Rom 10:17 So then faith cometh by hearing, and hearing by the word of God.
Rom 10:18 But I say, Have they not heard? Yes verily, their sound went into all the earth, and their words unto the ends of the world


Col 1:5 For the hope which is laid up for you in heaven, whereof ye heard before in the word of the truth of the gospel;
Col 1:6 Which is come unto you, as it is in all the world; and bringeth forth fruit, as it doth also in you, since the day ye heard of it, and knew the grace of God in truth:

 

[WIP]

Was the Gospel preached to the inhabited world pre-AD70?

I'd say so. He preached it personally and in the flesh.

 

[Alabaster]

The Gospel of Jesus Christ HAS YET TO BE preached to the whole world. When the entire planet has been reached, we shall be ready for the glorious Return of Jesus Christ.

It is utter foolishness to think that the entire world had received the Gospel before 70AD. It had barely begun to be preached by that time!

 

[Lehigh3]

I'd say so. He preached it personally and in the flesh.

That sounds logical. :nod

And satan was bound by Christ(represented by an Angel) in that period, so the nations could receive the gospel. (Rev.20)

I thought that sounds logical too. Christ bound the strongman.

 

[reba]

Col 1:23 If ye continue in the faith grounded and settled, and be not moved away from the hope of the gospel, which ye have heard, and which was preached to every creature which is under heaven; whereof I Paul am made a minister;

 

[Alabaster]

Romans 2:14-15 NLT
Even Gentiles, who do not have God’s written law, show that they know his law when they instinctively obey it, even without having heard it. They demonstrate that God’s law is written in their hearts, for their own conscience and thoughts either accuse them or tell them they are doing right.

 

[Stormcrow]

The Gospel of Jesus Christ HAS YET TO BE preached to the whole world. When the entire planet has been reached, we shall be ready for the glorious Return of Jesus Christ.

It is utter foolishness to think that the entire world had received the Gospel before 70AD. It had barely begun to be preached by that time!

I'm going to tell you the same thing I told a co-worker tonight: you cannot understand 1st century writers by reading them with 21st century eyes.

The Greek word for "world" in the New Testament is "Oikoumene" and it's where we get the world "Ecumenical."

Here is the word translated from the Greek:

oiÎkoumeÑnh [FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]feminine participle present passive of (3611) (as noun, by implication of (1093))[/FONT][FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]Transliterated Word[/FONT][FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]Phonetic Spelling[/FONT] [FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]Oikoumene[/FONT] [FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]oy-kou-men'-ay[/FONT]

[FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]Parts of Speech[/FONT][FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]TDNT[/FONT] [FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]Noun Feminine[/FONT] [FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]5:157,674[/FONT] [FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]Definition[/FONT] [FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]

1. the inhabited earth
   1. the portion of the earth inhabited by the Greeks, in distinction from the lands of the barbarians
   2. the Roman empire, all the subjects of the empire
   3. the whole inhabited earth, the world
   4. the inhabitants of the earth, men
2. the universe, the world

[/FONT] [FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]Translated Words[/FONT] [FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]KJV (15) - earth, 1; world, 14; NAS (15) - inhabited earth, 1; world, 14;
[/FONT]
The early church writers would have known this word by its primary meanings:

the inhabited earth

1. the portion of the earth inhabited by the Greeks, in distinction from the lands of the barbarians
2. the Roman empire, all the subjects of the empire

The passages in the Bible where this word "oikoumene" is used DO NOT refer to the map of the known world as it exists today.

Hope this helps.

 

[Alabaster]

I don't read the 1st century writers with 21st century eyes. That's why I don't have a problem with Scripture.

This is why I know that the 'world' meant the known world of their time. But God has a bigger plan. He knew there were millions of people beyond their puny noses. We know that too, by the benefit of hindsight.

It's not rocket science.

God's plan is still unfolding, as He adds to His family new children every day, and Jesus the Son adds more choice building blocks to His Church daily as well!, until God tells Him to go and ride to gather His Bride!

 

[Stormcrow]

I don't read the 1st century writers with 21st century eyes. That's why I don't have a problem with Scripture.

This is why I know that the 'world' meant the known world of their time.

Well then, I must have completely misunderstood your intent when you wrote:

The Gospel of Jesus Christ HAS YET TO BE preached to the whole world. When the entire planet has been reached, we shall be ready for the glorious Return of Jesus Christ.

It is utter foolishness to think that the entire world had received the Gospel before 70AD. It had barely begun to be preached by that time!

In your original post, cited just above, you indicated the word "world" means "entire planet." You further substantiated that claim with the idea that it was foolish to think the "entire world" had received the gospel.

Given that you equate "entire planet" with "entire world", obviously I misunderstood that you meant only the Greco-Roman world of Paul's time.

Forgive my lack of understanding.

 

[Alabaster]

Well then, I must have completely misunderstood your intent when you wrote:



In your original post, cited just above, you indicated the word "world" means "entire planet." You further substantiated that claim with the idea that it was foolish to think the "entire world" had received the gospel.

Given that you equate "entire planet" with "entire world", obviously I misunderstood that you meant only the Greco-Roman world of Paul's time.

Forgive my lack of understanding.

When the entire planet---this world---has been reached with the Gospel message, then the stage is set for the return of Jesus Christ, and not before. What with the internet, satellite and cable TV, and large, financially capable ministries that are infiltrating remote areas, that looks fairly imminent.

 

[Stormcrow]

When the entire planet---this world---has been reached with the Gospel message, then the stage is set for the return of Jesus Christ, and not before.

But that's NOT what the word "world" used in these verses means!

{14} "This gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the whole world [oikoumene] as a testimony to all the nations, and then the end will come. Matthew 24:14 (NASB)

{18} But I say, surely they have never heard, have they? Indeed they have; "THEIR VOICE HAS GONE OUT INTO ALL THE EARTH, AND THEIR WORDS TO THE ENDS OF THE WORLD [oikoumene]." Romans 10:18 (NASB)

When you say the "entire planet", you're overlaying YOUR interpretation of what this word "world" meant to Matthew and Paul!

Again, for the sake of clarity, here's what the word "oikoumene" means:

[FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]

1. the inhabited earth
   1. the portion of the earth inhabited by the Greeks, in distinction from the lands of the barbarians
   2. the Roman empire, all the subjects of the empire
   3. the whole inhabited earth, the world
   4. the inhabitants of the earth, men
2. the universe, the world

[/FONT] [FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]Translated Words[/FONT] [FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]KJV (15) - earth, 1; world, 14; NAS (15) - inhabited earth, 1; world, 14;
[/FONT]
The early church writers would have known this word by its primary meanings:

the inhabited earth

1. the portion of the earth inhabited by the Greeks, in distinction from the lands of the barbarians
2. the Roman empire, all the subjects of the empire

The passages in the Bible where this word "oikoumene" is used DO NOT refer to the map of the known world as it exists today.

Here's how it's presented in the Wiki:

Ecumene (also spelled Å“cumene or oikoumene) is a term originally used in the Greco-Roman world to refer to the inhabited earth (or at least the known part of it). The term derives from the Greek οἰκουμένη (oikouménē, the feminine present middle participle of the verb οἰκέω, oikéō, "to inhabit"), short for οἰκουμένη γῆ "inhabited world".[1] In modern connotations it refers either to the projection of a united Christian Church or to world civilizations.

Ecumene - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

​

Therefore, when Christ spoke these words:

{14} "This gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all the nations, and then the end will come. Matthew 24:14 (NASB)
​

He was referring to the "inhabited earth" at the time He spoke this. The "inhabited earth" known to the apostles at that time was the Greco-Roman world, NOT the entire planet.

Hope this helps.

 

[Alabaster]

But that's NOT what the word "world" used in these verses means!

{14} "This gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the whole world [oikoumene] as a testimony to all the nations, and then the end will come. Matthew 24:14 (NASB)

{18} But I say, surely they have never heard, have they? Indeed they have; "THEIR VOICE HAS GONE OUT INTO ALL THE EARTH, AND THEIR WORDS TO THE ENDS OF THE WORLD [oikoumene]." Romans 10:18 (NASB)

When you say the "entire planet", you're overlaying YOUR interpretation of what this word "world" meant to Matthew and Paul!

Again, for the sake of clarity, here's what the word "oikoumene" means:

[FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]

1. the inhabited earth
   1. the portion of the earth inhabited by the Greeks, in distinction from the lands of the barbarians
   2. the Roman empire, all the subjects of the empire
   3. the whole inhabited earth, the world
   4. the inhabitants of the earth, men
2. the universe, the world

[/FONT] [FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]Translated Words[/FONT] [FONT=Verdana, Arial, Geneva]KJV (15) - earth, 1; world, 14; NAS (15) - inhabited earth, 1; world, 14;
[/FONT]
The early church writers would have known this word by its primary meanings:

the inhabited earth

1. the portion of the earth inhabited by the Greeks, in distinction from the lands of the barbarians
2. the Roman empire, all the subjects of the empire

The passages in the Bible where this word "oikoumene" is used DO NOT refer to the map of the known world as it exists today.

Here's how it's presented in the Wiki:

Ecumene (also spelled œcumene or oikoumene) is a term originally used in the Greco-Roman world to refer to the inhabited earth (or at least the known part of it). The term derives from the Greek οἰκουμένη (oikouménē, the feminine present middle participle of the verb οἰκέω, oikéō, "to inhabit"), short for οἰκουμένη γῆ "inhabited world".[1] In modern connotations it refers either to the projection of a united Christian Church or to world civilizations.

Ecumene - Wikipedia, the free encyclopedia

​

Therefore, when Christ spoke these words:

{14} "This gospel of the kingdom shall be preached in the whole world as a testimony to all the nations, and then the end will come. Matthew 24:14 (NASB)
​

He was referring to the "inhabited earth" at the time He spoke this. The "inhabited earth" known to the apostles at that time was the Greco-Roman world, NOT the entire planet.

Hope this helps.

I think you are playing semantics and simply twisting what is plain before you into something other than what God is saying. The world is the world--the entire globe. The meaning is there, but you choose the alternate meanings that fit with your skewed view.

The Gospel is for all of humanity---and the Lord Jesus Christ is working in and through His faithful to bring the lost to Himself until Jesus comes for His Bride a the end of the age.

this is what God tells us plainly in Scripture and whomever changes that simple message is a false teacher and is working for the chief liar.

 

[Stormcrow]

I think you are simply twisting what is plain before you into something other than what God is saying. The world is the world--the entire globe.

And - as demonstrated to you twice now - that is your interpretation but not what Christ meant when He spoke those words to the disciples.

You are doing exactly what you said you do not do:

I don't read the 1st century writers with 21st century eyes.

Yes, you are.

The Gospel is for all of humanity

Of course it is: nobody is arguing otherwise. But you have to put these words in context and read them as they were intended. The Olivet Discourse was intended to answer specific questions Christ's disciples asked about when the Temple would be torn down, for one. Christ's words have to be understood in that context, or they are completely meaningless.

By asserting that your interpretation is correct, you're actually undermining the authority and veracity of the Bible you're trying to defend. I know you don't see it that way, but you need to. Either Christ meant what He said, or we are free to make up anything we want about Him.

I don't think you want or intend the latter.

Peace. Out.

 

[Alabaster]

And - as demonstrated to you twice now - that is your interpretation but not what Christ meant when He spoke those words to the disciples.

No. Jesus was being plain, and speaking to future generations as well.

If you know Christ and know His word, you know that the men He spoke to had a limited view of the world. That goes without saying. Jesus surely didn't.

 

[Stormcrow]

No. Jesus was being plain, and speaking to future generations as well.

If you know Christ and know His word, you know that the men He spoke to had a limited view of the world. That goes without saying. Jesus surely didn't.

Yes. He was being plain in the words He chose to address His disciples: words that THEY would have understood in the period and context in which He was addressing THEM.

You're not reading the words as Christ intended them. You're merely adding modern views and doctrines to the words Christ spoke. That's not the way to read the Word.

For what it's worth.

 

[Alabaster]

Yes. He was being plain in the words He chose to address His disciples: words that THEY would have understood in the period and context in which He was addressing THEM.

You're not reading the words as Christ intended them. You're merely adding modern views and doctrines to the words Christ spoke. That's not the way to read the Word.

For what it's worth.

So you believe that the Gospel was only for a few people in the known Roman Empire?

Shall we believe that foolishness by virtue of a limited meaning attributed to a Greek word?

In Mark 15:15 NKJV Jesus uses the word, 'kosmos' (Gk):
And He said to them, “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature.

G2889
κόσμος
kosmos
kos'-mos
Probably from the base of G2865; orderly arrangement, that is, decoration; by implication the world (in a wide or narrow sense, including its inhabitants, literally or figuratively [morally]): - adorning, world.


I wonder what His hearers thought then? Were missionaries and church planters supposed to stop preaching and establishing churches at some point past the known Roman Empire?

Get real. Of course Jesus was speaking to men who didn't know what the world consisted of! But we do! We know what Jesus is saying!

 

[Stormcrow]

So you believe that the Gospel was only for a few people in the known Roman Empire?

Please cite the post or thread where I have ever written such a thing. If you can't, it's a strawman.

Shall we believe that foolishness by virtue of a limited meaning attributed to a Greek word?

Shall we believe the foolishness that Christ didn't mean what He said???

In Mark 15:15 NKJV Jesus uses the word, 'kosmos' (Gk)

Kosmos fully defined:

Noun κόσμος (genitive κόσμου) m, second declension; (kosmos)

order, lawful order, government, mode, fashion, ornament, decoration, honour, credit, ruler, world, universe, the earth, mankind

Noun κόσμος m (kósmos), plural κόσμοι

World, the planet we live on. People, the masses. Crowds of people. A historical period, a special set of countries. Ο ρωμαϊκός κόσμος. (The Roman world.)

kosmos - wikitionary

Pay attention to the first three meanings of this word "kosmos": order, lawful order, government.

Who was the lawful order of that time??? Who was the government???

That's right: the Roman Empire!

Here's where else "Kosmos" is used:

{8} First, I thank my God through Jesus Christ for you all, because your faith is being proclaimed throughout the whole world [kosmos]. Romans 1:8 (NASB)

(I suppose by this usage Paul meant North America and Russia. )

{3} We give thanks to God, the Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, praying always for you, {4} since we heard of your faith in Christ Jesus and the love which you have for all the saints; {5} because of the hope laid up for you in heaven, of which you previously heard in the word of truth, the gospel {6} which has come to you, just as in all the world [kosmos] also it is constantly bearing fruit and increasing, even as it has been doing in you also since the day you heard of it and understood the grace of God in truth; Colossians 1:3-6 (NASB)

(And I suppose by this, Paul was writing of the Chinese and Polynesians when he spoke of the gospel coming to "the world" [kosmos] as it had to the Colossians. )

And He said to them, “Go into all the world and preach the gospel to every creature.

(And I suppose by the use of the words "every creature" we are also supposed to preach to dogs, cats, trees and snails??? Following your argument to it's logical conclusion, (("world means world!")) we would have to because "every creature" MEANS "every creature!")

(See how silly that is???)

OK, enough sarcasm. Let me break this to you gently: context defines meaning where a word clearly has more than one meaning. This is why you MUST read these passages in context to properly understand them!

I wonder what His hearers thought then? Were missionaries and church planters supposed to stop preaching and establishing churches at some point past the known Roman Empire?

Yet another strawman. Now it's just tiresome.

Get real. Of course Jesus was speaking to men who didn't know what the world consisted of! But we do! We know what Jesus is saying!

But Jesus wasn't TALKING TO US, just as Paul wasn't writing to us when he addressed his letter to the Colossians, cited above!

Enough for now. I've been sick and need sleep.

Thanks for the discussion. No hard feelings here.

Peace. Out.

 

[Alabaster]

[video=youtube;CnHm4_w4dIc]http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=CnHm4_w4dIc&feature=related[/video]