Wheat Field
Member
One would assume that defining it would be simple...surely?
Jesus does say in Matthew 5:27-28:
You have heard it said, 'You shall not commit adultery. But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.
Clearly, Jesus is doubling down on not straying from one's marriage even in thought. One might infer that any form of polygamy would obviously be proscribed by such a statement and yet there numerous cases of it in the OT where it is described without condemnation. Perhaps David is the best example where he is only condemned for taking Bathsheba, a married woman - he isn't condemned for the other numerous wives and concubines he had.
We also know that scripture provided for polygamy in law - Deuteronomy 21:10ff and Exodus 21:10.
Jesus explicitly states in Matthew 19:9, that divorce is permitted only in the case of sexual immorality - which clearly underlines the hurt that having sex outside of the marriage causes:
I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.
Nobody would infer that the OT wives of such figures as Solomon, David and Jacob were any the less emotional disturbed by their husband openly sleeping with another / other women would we?
(NB: This thread is similar to my other thread: Ellicott's commentary on Romans 7:1-3, but I am hoping that presenting the issue in this new way might yield a better response.)
Jesus does say in Matthew 5:27-28:
You have heard it said, 'You shall not commit adultery. But I tell you that anyone who looks at a woman lustfully has already committed adultery with her in his heart.
Clearly, Jesus is doubling down on not straying from one's marriage even in thought. One might infer that any form of polygamy would obviously be proscribed by such a statement and yet there numerous cases of it in the OT where it is described without condemnation. Perhaps David is the best example where he is only condemned for taking Bathsheba, a married woman - he isn't condemned for the other numerous wives and concubines he had.
We also know that scripture provided for polygamy in law - Deuteronomy 21:10ff and Exodus 21:10.
Jesus explicitly states in Matthew 19:9, that divorce is permitted only in the case of sexual immorality - which clearly underlines the hurt that having sex outside of the marriage causes:
I tell you that anyone who divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another woman commits adultery.
Nobody would infer that the OT wives of such figures as Solomon, David and Jacob were any the less emotional disturbed by their husband openly sleeping with another / other women would we?
(NB: This thread is similar to my other thread: Ellicott's commentary on Romans 7:1-3, but I am hoping that presenting the issue in this new way might yield a better response.)