cyberjosh
Member
I was reading in 1 Chronicles 23:25 where David mentions a rest having been given to the people of Israel, and then following some cross references I began to see a theme of rest in the OT. However this rest, though perfectly fulfilled as promised during the Israelites' lifetime (that will be shown clearly below), was yet somehow different from another kind of rest that the Israelites did not enter into. What is this rest and why was it not fulfilled as apparently the other rest was?
Starting in 1 Chronicles 23:25 it says: "For David said, 'The LORD God of Israel has given rest to His people, that they may dwell in Jerusalem forever';"
In the preceding chapter it also says, "“Is not the LORD your God with you? And has He not given you rest on every side? For He has given the inhabitants of the land into my hand, and the land is subdued before the LORD and before His people." (1 Chronicles 22:18)
This apparently goes back to a promise in the Law of Moses in Deutoronomy which reads:
"You shall not at all do as we are doing here today—every man doing whatever is right in his own eyes— 9 for as yet you have not come to the rest and the inheritance which the LORD your God is giving you. 10 But when you cross over the Jordan and dwell in the land which the LORD your God is giving you to inherit, and He gives you rest from all your enemies round about, so that you dwell in safety, 11 then there will be the place where the LORD your God chooses to make His name abide." (Deuteronomy 12:8-11)
As you will see in the following verses this rest was indeed given to Israel:
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"The LORD gave them rest all around, according to all that He had sworn to their fathers. And not a man of all their enemies stood against them; the LORD delivered all their enemies into their hand." (Joshua 21:44)
"And now the LORD your God has given rest to your brethren, as He promised them; now therefore, return and go to your tents and to the land of your possession, which Moses the servant of the LORD gave you on the other side of the Jordan." (Joshua 22:4)
"Now it came to pass when the king was dwelling in his house, and the LORD had given him rest from all his enemies all around, that the king said to Nathan the prophet, 'See now, I dwell in a house of cedar, but the ark of God dwells inside tent curtains.'" (2 Samuel 7:1-2)
"But now the LORD my God has given me rest on every side; there is neither adversary nor evil occurrence." (1 Kings 5:4)
"Blessed be the LORD, who has given rest to His people Israel, according to all that He promised. There has not failed one word of all His good promise, which He promised through His servant Moses." (1 Kings 8:56)
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So we see clearly that the rest as promised by God was fulfilled to the very last word as given in the Law of Moses in the days of Joshua, David, and Solomon.
Yet somehow many years after those events one of the psalmists wrote:
"For forty years I was grieved with that generation,
And said, ‘It is a people who go astray in their hearts,
And they do not know My ways.’
So I swore in My wrath,
‘They shall not enter My rest.’" (Psalm 95:10-11)
Wait a second.... the psalmist here is retelling the story of Israel's disobedience in the wilderness for 40 years before they even entered the land of Israel (before Joshua, David, or Solomon) and yet God here swore that they would not enter into His rest when clearly God gave them the rest that he promised in the Law of Moses. What is going on here?
And clearly as seen in the two passages above from Joshua the Israelites were given rest in the land as promised, and yet at this place in Hebrews we read: "For if Joshua had given them rest, then He would not afterward have spoken of another day" (Hebrews 4:8). This is saying they were not given rest after all. This is further made clear in Hebrews 3:18-19, "And to whom did He swear that they would not enter His rest, but to those who did not obey? So we see that they could not enter in because of unbelief."
So then my question is: if they were not given rest then what kind of rest were they given as stated in Deuteronomy, Joshua, 2 Samuel, 1 Kings, and 1 Chronicles? But more importantly, what kind of rest was not given as mentioned in Psalm 95 and Hebrews 3 & 4? If it was not (perhaps answering my first question) the physical rest in the land mentioned in the other OT passages, then what kind of rest was it that God yet had for His people?
Starting in 1 Chronicles 23:25 it says: "For David said, 'The LORD God of Israel has given rest to His people, that they may dwell in Jerusalem forever';"
In the preceding chapter it also says, "“Is not the LORD your God with you? And has He not given you rest on every side? For He has given the inhabitants of the land into my hand, and the land is subdued before the LORD and before His people." (1 Chronicles 22:18)
This apparently goes back to a promise in the Law of Moses in Deutoronomy which reads:
"You shall not at all do as we are doing here today—every man doing whatever is right in his own eyes— 9 for as yet you have not come to the rest and the inheritance which the LORD your God is giving you. 10 But when you cross over the Jordan and dwell in the land which the LORD your God is giving you to inherit, and He gives you rest from all your enemies round about, so that you dwell in safety, 11 then there will be the place where the LORD your God chooses to make His name abide." (Deuteronomy 12:8-11)
As you will see in the following verses this rest was indeed given to Israel:
-------------------------------
"The LORD gave them rest all around, according to all that He had sworn to their fathers. And not a man of all their enemies stood against them; the LORD delivered all their enemies into their hand." (Joshua 21:44)
"And now the LORD your God has given rest to your brethren, as He promised them; now therefore, return and go to your tents and to the land of your possession, which Moses the servant of the LORD gave you on the other side of the Jordan." (Joshua 22:4)
"Now it came to pass when the king was dwelling in his house, and the LORD had given him rest from all his enemies all around, that the king said to Nathan the prophet, 'See now, I dwell in a house of cedar, but the ark of God dwells inside tent curtains.'" (2 Samuel 7:1-2)
"But now the LORD my God has given me rest on every side; there is neither adversary nor evil occurrence." (1 Kings 5:4)
"Blessed be the LORD, who has given rest to His people Israel, according to all that He promised. There has not failed one word of all His good promise, which He promised through His servant Moses." (1 Kings 8:56)
-------------------------------
So we see clearly that the rest as promised by God was fulfilled to the very last word as given in the Law of Moses in the days of Joshua, David, and Solomon.
Yet somehow many years after those events one of the psalmists wrote:
"For forty years I was grieved with that generation,
And said, ‘It is a people who go astray in their hearts,
And they do not know My ways.’
So I swore in My wrath,
‘They shall not enter My rest.’" (Psalm 95:10-11)
Wait a second.... the psalmist here is retelling the story of Israel's disobedience in the wilderness for 40 years before they even entered the land of Israel (before Joshua, David, or Solomon) and yet God here swore that they would not enter into His rest when clearly God gave them the rest that he promised in the Law of Moses. What is going on here?
And clearly as seen in the two passages above from Joshua the Israelites were given rest in the land as promised, and yet at this place in Hebrews we read: "For if Joshua had given them rest, then He would not afterward have spoken of another day" (Hebrews 4:8). This is saying they were not given rest after all. This is further made clear in Hebrews 3:18-19, "And to whom did He swear that they would not enter His rest, but to those who did not obey? So we see that they could not enter in because of unbelief."
So then my question is: if they were not given rest then what kind of rest were they given as stated in Deuteronomy, Joshua, 2 Samuel, 1 Kings, and 1 Chronicles? But more importantly, what kind of rest was not given as mentioned in Psalm 95 and Hebrews 3 & 4? If it was not (perhaps answering my first question) the physical rest in the land mentioned in the other OT passages, then what kind of rest was it that God yet had for His people?