Lewis
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Why did God allow incest in the Bible
- Thread starter Lewis
- Start date
Deborah13
Member
What do you think? Do you believe what gotquestions.org states?
Lewis
Member
Yes
Gary
Member
You can't be all bad; you also are an Eagles fan!! 3-0 WOW ;-P
Back to reality. The short answer is necessity if you are speaking about the sons and daughters of Adam and Eve, and the family of Noah.
Be4cause the genetic pool was close to being perfect with the offspring of Adam and Eve, incest was not an issue, and If the sons of Adam and Eve did not have anyone else to marry, except their sisters, the human race would have perished if they did not do incest.
According to the chronology, Adam lived to be 950+ years, and died shortly before the Flood. As a result, the same argument of necessity could be said for the sons and daughters of Noah. Yes, the sons had their own wife, but first cousins must have married their other first cousins.
Therefore before the giving of the Law by Moses, incest was not a taboo. Of course, it was practiced by others, but you have to remember that since the Bible is a history of God's covenantal children, so it is never praised, nor is it blessed. It is treated as a sin.
Moses came after Abraham.
from online wikipedia: (see cousins)
"Incest in the Bible refers to sexual relations between certain close kinship relationships which are prohibited by the Hebrew Bible. These prohibitions are found predominantly in Leviticus 18:8-18 and 20:11-21, but also in Deuteronomy. The biblical categories of prohibited relationships does not entirely match the modern definitions of prohibited incestuous relations in force in various countries or of the various Christian denominations. (see Affinity (canon law) and Laws regarding incest.)
A few books of the Bible, particularly the early parts of the Torah, contain narratives in which certain individuals, from the same family as one another, engage in sexual intercourse together; while this could be construed as incest, endogamy is an alternative interpretation. The Bible does not, for example, forbid cousins from marrying, but it does prohibit sexual relations with several other close relatives.
"Incest in the Bible refers to sexual relations between certain close kinship relationships which are prohibited by the Hebrew Bible. These prohibitions are found predominantly in Leviticus 18:8-18 and 20:11-21, but also in Deuteronomy. The biblical categories of prohibited relationships does not entirely match the modern definitions of prohibited incestuous relations in force in various countries or of the various Christian denominations. (see Affinity (canon law) and Laws regarding incest.)
A few books of the Bible, particularly the early parts of the Torah, contain narratives in which certain individuals, from the same family as one another, engage in sexual intercourse together; while this could be construed as incest, endogamy is an alternative interpretation. The Bible does not, for example, forbid cousins from marrying, but it does prohibit sexual relations with several other close relatives.
I know that but he dispensed the law, he wasn't born of sin. how could have been? when he was after the fact and gave the torah and received it as well?
TOG
Member
Most people asking this question are either non-Christians looking for a way to accuse God of some wrongdoing, or Christians looking for a way to answer the non-Christians asking the question. Next time some non-Christian asks you this, answer him with a slightly modified version of the question.
Why are you concerned about incest being allowed thousands of years ago, but seem totally indifferent to the fact that it's legal in most of the world today?
View attachment 4906
... Including 20 states of the United States?
View attachment 4907
Source
The TOG
Are you making the assertion that Moses somehow escaped the Adamic curse?
I do not believe that is supported by Scripture:
Romans 5: 12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:
13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
15 But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.
16 And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification.
17 For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.
20 Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:
21 That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord.
.13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
15 But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.
16 And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification.
17 For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.
20 Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:
21 That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord.
Actually, I believe that your mind raced ahead of your fingers on the keyboard-- I call that "fumble fingering" which I do often.
2
Are you making the assertion that Moses somehow escaped the Adamic curse?
I do not believe that is supported by Scripture:
Romans 5: 12 Wherefore, as by one man sin entered into the world, and death by sin; and so death passed upon all men, for that all have sinned:.
13 (For until the law sin was in the world: but sin is not imputed when there is no law.
14 Nevertheless death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over them that had not sinned after the similitude of Adam's transgression, who is the figure of him that was to come.
15 But not as the offence, so also is the free gift. For if through the offence of one many be dead, much more the grace of God, and the gift by grace, which is by one man, Jesus Christ, hath abounded unto many.
16 And not as it was by one that sinned, so is the gift: for the judgment was by one to condemnation, but the free gift is of many offences unto justification.
17 For if by one man's offence death reigned by one; much more they which receive abundance of grace and of the gift of righteousness shall reign in life by one, Jesus Christ.)
18 Therefore as by the offence of one judgment came upon all men to condemnation; even so by the righteousness of one the free gift came upon all men unto justification of life.
19 For as by one man's disobedience many were made sinners, so by the obedience of one shall many be made righteous.
20 Moreover the law entered, that the offence might abound. But where sin abounded, grace did much more abound:
21 That as sin hath reigned unto death, even so might grace reign through righteousness unto eternal life by Jesus Christ our Lord.
Actually, I believe that your mind raced ahead of your fingers on the keyboard-- I call that "fumble fingering" which I do often.
no. I said that if incest was a sin prior to moses. he would have to KILL his parents whom might have been alive during the exodus.
incest had no chance of forgiveness as there was no offering for that like murder, lying, cursing god and also being gay under the torah.
so he knowing that which he did would have to ask god what do I do, and also be told to either overlook as they did before I gave the command or to kill them. moses was sought by god and god was going to slay him for not circumcising his youngest son. and that was after the burning bush. if god felt that way and moses delayed and his parents were alive he would have to act.
You are entitled to your opinion.
Let's look first at Scripture:
Genesis 6:1 And it came to pass, when men began to multiply on the face of the earth, and daughters were born unto them,
2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.
3 And the LORD said, My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years.
4 There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown.
5 And GOD saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually.
6 And it repented the LORD that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his heart.
7 And the LORD said, I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth; both man, and beast, and the creeping thing, and the fowls of the air; for it repenteth me that I have made them.
8 But Noah found grace in the eyes of the LORD.
This tells us that at the time of 40 years before the Flood, none, excepting Noah were believers.2 That the sons of God saw the daughters of men that they were fair; and they took them wives of all which they chose.
3 And the LORD said, My spirit shall not always strive with man, for that he also is flesh: yet his days shall be an hundred and twenty years.
4 There were giants in the earth in those days; and also after that, when the sons of God came in unto the daughters of men, and they bare children to them, the same became mighty men which were of old, men of renown.
5 And GOD saw that the wickedness of man was great in the earth, and that every imagination of the thoughts of his heart was only evil continually.
6 And it repented the LORD that he had made man on the earth, and it grieved him at his heart.
7 And the LORD said, I will destroy man whom I have created from the face of the earth; both man, and beast, and the creeping thing, and the fowls of the air; for it repenteth me that I have made them.
8 But Noah found grace in the eyes of the LORD.
From the ages of the significant people in Genesis to Noah we can determine some ages of death of the significant characters, but due to ambiguities related to the word translated "begat" there is only a RANGE of dates possible to ascertain the length of time between Noah and Moses. The ambiguity we have is due to the fact that Moses used the word we translate as "begat" to mean a father to son, father to grandson, or father to great grandson relationship. So while we can observe that Scripture states Adam died when he was 950+ years old, it is not warranted to state that he died less than 5 years before the flood. (It is a possibility, but there is no proof for that, therefore it is honest to maintain a degree of ambiguity.)
Since Moses wrote Genesis, (excepting for the last two chapters) it is natural to assume the same sort of processes of chronology to detail the lineage from Noah to Abram to Moses. It is a condensation of the lineages because it omits the "insignificant" members of the family tree.
Here is an exposition of what I stated above:
The problem is resolved by assuming Terah died at age 145. Old Testament scholar Bruce Waltke is a proponent of this viewpoint, based on “the Samaritan Pentateuch [SP], which preserves an original text type and informs Acts 7:2-4” and on the belief that it is unlikely Terah sired Abraham at age 130.8 New Testament scholar F. F. Bruce agrees. He believes Abraham being born when Terah was 130 is “improbable” and suggests the possibility of “a Greek version of Gen 11:32 agreeing with the Samaritan Text on Terah’s age at death, but no longer extant.”9 Bruce bases this suggestion on the first edition of German Masoretic scholar Paul Kahle’s book The Cairo Geniza, specifically on Kahle’s analysis of Philo’s quotations with respect to the LXX.10 However, this analysis is not included in the book’s second edition,11 published twelve years later. Nevertheless, if Terah died at age 145, then Abraham could have been born when Terah was 70 and left Haran at age 75 after Terah died.
On the other hand, the LXX confounds the problem. According to the LXX, Genesis 11:32 reads that Terah spent 205 years in Haran,12 and hence would have lived to be at least 275 since Abraham was born in Ur (Genesis 11:31).
In summary, a comparison of the Hebrew text, the LXX, and the SP suggests Terah died at age 145, 205, or 275, respectively, or something in between (a 130-year range, equivalent to 90 percent of Terah’s minimum age of death). We question the LXX and SP’s accuracy because the LXX consistently inflates the early patriarchs’ age-to-birth-of-son13 while the SP not only changes ages from the Hebrew text, but also makes other changes advantageous to the Samaritans (such as commanding an altar be built on Mount Gerizim upon which to make sacrifices).
from http://www.reasons.org/articles/fro...genealogical-gaps-in-mosaic-literature-part-4
On the other hand, the LXX confounds the problem. According to the LXX, Genesis 11:32 reads that Terah spent 205 years in Haran,12 and hence would have lived to be at least 275 since Abraham was born in Ur (Genesis 11:31).
In summary, a comparison of the Hebrew text, the LXX, and the SP suggests Terah died at age 145, 205, or 275, respectively, or something in between (a 130-year range, equivalent to 90 percent of Terah’s minimum age of death). We question the LXX and SP’s accuracy because the LXX consistently inflates the early patriarchs’ age-to-birth-of-son13 while the SP not only changes ages from the Hebrew text, but also makes other changes advantageous to the Samaritans (such as commanding an altar be built on Mount Gerizim upon which to make sacrifices).
from http://www.reasons.org/articles/fro...genealogical-gaps-in-mosaic-literature-part-4
As a result, it is a leap of logic, and contradictory to the facts to assume that anyone from the family of Noah was alive at the time of the 480 years of Egyptian slavery. the enforced hardship would have killed them quickly.
Since the Law was given to Moses in the Wilderness, on the other side of the Red Sea, there was no such thing as Mosaic Law; there was only the Law of Egypt. Such a "Law" provided for legal prostitution (hey, the gods do it, so we can, right?) where the "official prostitutes" openly displayed their nudity, or word a "Miley Cirus fishnet dress". In researching this, I saw there during the time of Roman occupation of Egypt, around 30 BC roughly one in 5 marriages were incestuous. SOURCE. This was thus a common practice at the time of Jesus for the people of Egypt.
From what I posted above, I do not understand why anyone could state " he would have to KILL his parents whom might have been alive during the exodus.". Could you explain that?
chozen1956
Member
You might as well state, why did God allow Satan to exist?
First, grace. Because of God's unbelievable, immeasurable grace, evil is allowed to exist. Can I explain that further? I don't think I can.
God always worked within man's shortcomings. Look at Abraham. He gave up his wife to save his butt. What kind of guy is that? One of God's elect. Chosen.
Look at Moses. He struck the rock (symbolic for Christ) with a vengeance, without any reverence. He murdered a guy. What kind of man is this? One of God's elect. Chosen.
Look at Paul. A zealot. A Pharisee who refused to receive God's grace. A jailer of the innocent. A man who sent Christians to their doom. What kind of man is this? One of God's elect. Chosen.
Look at Cain. Arguably the most depraved and wicked soul to ever walk the earth. Read Josephus to better understand this man. He instituted borders, cities, money, weights and measures. He was constantly striven to wickedness to the extreme. God marked him and allowed him to flourish.
Why can be a very dark path because our minds are not like Gods. But we know that Good is perfect. Good. Holy. Righteous. Bountiful in Love, grace, and mercy. Especially to the wicked. Like who I was.
chozen1956
Member
Not sure why this approach is relevant to our discussion. But, sin is still sin. It's just that God established a new and better way of dealing with it...he crucified sin. We should never be sin conscious.
Sinthesis
Member
And what is sin?