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Why is Jesus the Christ?

Packrat

Member
There were two things that I was concerned about. One was the question of why some 'Jews' believed in a different Messiah than Christians. The other was the question of why some passages in Psalms and numerous other places are supposed to be prophetic of the Messiah when I clearly interpret them as not being so within the context of their passages?

One of the sound prophetic verses for the Messiah I can think of right off is Genesis 49:10. I'm pretty sure that the royal power of Judah remained until Rome came along and the ensuing Jewish revolt or even before the revolt. See http://www.voicefromzion.org/artman/pub ... e_32.shtml As far as I know, the sceptre has never returned to Judah because 'Judah' as a kingdom or political body no longer exists; it is only Israel now. But Jesus the Christ has the authority to rule and is a descendant of David whose kingdom was Judah and not Israel as I remember. See 2 Samuel 2:4,10.

Another concern of mine is found in Jeremiah 33:20-21. If we have not broken God's covenant with the night and day, then David still has a descendant or a son to reign on his throne. I'm not exactly sure what this implies, but I'm pretty sure that one's lineage to David could not be traced in this day and age even if one were a descendant of David. The Holocaust also complicates matters. But whether or not there is still a descendant of David in this world, we Christians can still be sure that there is a royal descendant of David living today who we know as Christ Jesus.

Genesis 3:15 is a pretty solid passage on the Christ and the Anti-Christ as well. There are some doubts in my mind, though, since Young's Literal Translation can be read as indicating that the serpent is the head and the seed of the woman is the heel rather than the serpent shall be bruised on the head and the seed of the woman shall be bruised on the heel (only because of the dashes which imply to me that 'the head' is being attributed to the character of the serpent rather than 'the head' being the serpent's head, etc.). If that specific interpretation of it is in error, then I believe this to be a solid passage on the Messiah and the Anti-Christ.
 
I don't have the time to go into a lengthy explanation of all the doctrine behind this (perhaps someone else can fill you in) but Jesus is currently executing the duties and offices of High Priest and King in Heaven on our behalf and we are actually part of his kingdom already and are a royal priesthood but the Kingdom of God has not come in its entirety, but will do so at the "consumation of all things", and after Jesus riegns it seems he will hand over his rule (while apparently still fulfilling the office) to God the Father for his Glory so that God and his Kingdom will be "all in all" (fully revealed and realized). "When all things are subjected to Him, then the Son Himself also will be subjected to the One who subjected all things to Him, so that God may be all in all." (1 Corinthians 15:28)
 
cybershark5886 said:
perhaps someone else can fill you in

Perhaps they can. :) Thanks for your reply, though. It wasn't what I was looking for, but it was certainly helpful in understanding Christ's role. Of course to accept for certain what is being said in that letter to the Corinthians, I would have to understand why or how Psalm 8:6 is supposed to be prophetic. To me, it's just saying that God made mankind to have authority over all flocks, herds, and the beasts of the field, etc. such as is found in Genesis 1:28.
 
...updated my first post and will try to continue to update it as a find more and more 'solid' prophetic passages for the Messiah. <bumpage>
 
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