Our God and Savior, Jesus Christ

[locust]

First, going to the United Church for truth in theology is like a box of chocolates.

and yet that is what the churches are ,a box of chocolates cause you never know what your going to get

 

[SolaScriptura]

I will make 4 points on this great verse

Firstly, in the Greek text we have, "προσδεχόμενοι τὴν μακαρίαν ἐλπίδα καὶ ἐπιφάνειαν τῆς δόξης τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ", where the literal translation in English is: " looking for the blessed hope and Appearance of the Glory of the Great God and Savior of us Jesus Christ". Where it is clear that only one Person is meant.

Secondly, had Paul written "τοῦ μεγάλου κυρίου καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ", where the change is "κυρίου" (Lord) for "θεοῦ" (God), there would not be any discussion or dispute on the words in the Greek, as referring to one Person, Jesus Christ!

Thirdly, the Jehovah's Witnesses, in their own publication of the Greek Interlinear New Testament (available on archive.org), the literal English translation under the Greek reads: "waiting for the blessed hope and appearing of the glory of the great God and savior of us Jesus Anointed". As my first point. And, the English in the right-hand column reads: "waiting for the BLESSED Hope, even the appearing of the GLORY of our GREAT GOD and Savior Jesus Christ". where it is very clear, that here the JW's themselves call Jesus Christ, "GREAT GOD"! As it does in their their Kingdom Interlinear Greek New Testament, the Jehovah’s Witnesses, in the literal English translation, under the Greek text, reads: “awaiting the happy hope and manifestation of the glory of the great God and Saviour of us of Christ Jesus”

And, fourthly, the Unitarian Greek scholar, Dr George Winer, admits, that, “In the above remarks it was not my intention to deny that, in point of grammar, Σωτηρoς μωv (our Saviour) may be regarded as a second predicate, jointly dependent on the article τoυ (the); but the dogmatic conviction derived from Paul's writings that this apostle cannot have called Christ the great God induced me to show that there is no grammatical obstacle to our taking the clause και Σωτ...Χριστoυ (from,'and to Christ') by itself as referring to a second subject" (A Treatise on the Grammar of New Testament Greek, p.162. 1877 edition. - words in brackets are mine). The Greek grammar, say Dr Winer, as written by the Apostle Paul, is used here to call Jesus Christ, “The Great God and Saviour”. However, because of his “dogmatic conviction”, as a Unitarian, he simply could not accept that Paul could have called Jesus Christ, “τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ”!

The Greek adjective "μέγας", also has the meaning "Mighty", which is what Jesus Christ is called in Isaiah 9:6, "’êl Gibbôr" (Mighty God), which is what the JW's translate for Jesus!

Here we have even those who reject the fact that Jesus Christ is GOD, in their "Christology", admit that the Bible does indeed say that He IS!

 

[locust]

I will make 4 points on this great verse

Firstly, in the Greek text we have, "προσδεχόμενοι τὴν μακαρίαν ἐλπίδα καὶ ἐπιφάνειαν τῆς δόξης τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ", where the literal translation in English is: " looking for the blessed hope and Appearance of the Glory of the Great God and Savior of us Jesus Christ". Where it is clear that only one Person is meant.

Secondly, had Paul written "τοῦ μεγάλου κυρίου καὶ σωτῆρος ἡμῶν Ἰησοῦ Χριστοῦ", where the change is "κυρίου" (Lord) for "θεοῦ" (God), there would not be any discussion or dispute on the words in the Greek, as referring to one Person, Jesus Christ!

Thirdly, the Jehovah's Witnesses, in their own publication of the Greek Interlinear New Testament (available on archive.org), the literal English translation under the Greek reads: "waiting for the blessed hope and appearing of the glory of the great God and savior of us Jesus Anointed". As my first point. And, the English in the right-hand column reads: "waiting for the BLESSED Hope, even the appearing of the GLORY of our GREAT GOD and Savior Jesus Christ". where it is very clear, that here the JW's themselves call Jesus Christ, "GREAT GOD"! As it does in their their Kingdom Interlinear Greek New Testament, the Jehovah’s Witnesses, in the literal English translation, under the Greek text, reads: “awaiting the happy hope and manifestation of the glory of the great God and Saviour of us of Christ Jesus”

And, fourthly, the Unitarian Greek scholar, Dr George Winer, admits, that, “In the above remarks it was not my intention to deny that, in point of grammar, Σωτηρoς μωv (our Saviour) may be regarded as a second predicate, jointly dependent on the article τoυ (the); but the dogmatic conviction derived from Paul's writings that this apostle cannot have called Christ the great God induced me to show that there is no grammatical obstacle to our taking the clause και Σωτ...Χριστoυ (from,'and to Christ') by itself as referring to a second subject" (A Treatise on the Grammar of New Testament Greek, p.162. 1877 edition. - words in brackets are mine). The Greek grammar, say Dr Winer, as written by the Apostle Paul, is used here to call Jesus Christ, “The Great God and Saviour”. However, because of his “dogmatic conviction”, as a Unitarian, he simply could not accept that Paul could have called Jesus Christ, “τοῦ μεγάλου θεοῦ”!

The Greek adjective "μέγας", also has the meaning "Mighty", which is what Jesus Christ is called in Isaiah 9:6, "’êl Gibbôr" (Mighty God), which is what the JW's translate for Jesus!

Here we have even those who reject the fact that Jesus Christ is GOD, in their "Christology", admit that the Bible does indeed say that He IS!

perhaps you don't know the difference between 'mighty' and
'all mighty'

 

[SolaScriptura]

perhaps you don't know the difference between 'mighty' and
'all mighty

you trying to say that Jesus Christ is "Mighty God", but not "Almighty God"? So you do believe that there are TWO distinct Persons Who are GOD?

In Revelation 5:13-14, we read of the Father AND Jesus Christ, as to BOTH EQUALLY given "και το κρατος", that is ALL THE MIGHT! The use of the Greek article, "το", as also in, "η ευλογια και η τιμη και η δοξα", "that is THE Blessing; THE Honor; THE Glory", meaning that ALL OF THE BLESSING, ALL OF THE HONOR, ALL OF THE GLORY, belongs EQUALLY to the Father and Jesus Christ! Likewise, ALL THE MIGHT, which is the SAME as ALMIGHTY!

also check this out, https://christianforums.net/threads/jesus-christ-is-almighty-god.102687/

 

[GodsGrace]

Our God and Savior, Jesus Christ
See Titus 2.13, cf. 2 Peter 1.1



Two of the shortest books of the New Testament contain similar - and very strong - affirmations of Jesus Christ as God. In his epistle to Titus, the apostle Paul states that Christians "wait for the blessed hope and the manifestation of the glory of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ" (Titus 2:13).



The equally short epistle of 2 Peter opens by describing its readers as "those who have received a faith as precious as ours through the righteousness of our God and Savior Jesus Christ" (1:1). Both of these texts describe Jesus using the two titles God and Savior. Not everyone agrees that these verses call Jesus "God" One cult, for example, translates Titus 2:13 "of the great God and of [the] Savior of us, Christ Jesus" and 2 Peter 1:1 "of our God and [the] Savior Jesus Christ" (NWT). The bracketed insertions of the word ‘the’ make a significant difference. Read these verses without the bracketed insertions - especially 2 Peter 1:1 - and they sound like they are referring to Jesus as both God and the pronoun appears.)



When this construction occurs in ancient Greek using singular personal nouns that are not proper names (that is, nouns like father, Lord, king, not Jesus, Peter, or Paul), the two nouns refer to the same person. The first writer to analyze this construction in a formal way did so in the late eighteenth century. He was an English Christian abolitionist named Granville Sharp; for that reason, the analysis of this construction is commonly known as Granville Sharp's rule. The New Testament contains plenty of examples supporting Sharp's rule. The epistles of Paul, for example, refer to "our God and Father" (Gal. 1:4; Phil. 4:20; 1 Thess. 1:3; 3:11, 13) and "the God and Father" (Rom. 15:6; 1 Cor. 15:24), which certainly refer to one person by both titles God and Father. There are numerous additional examples, many of little or no theological import.



The evidence that Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1 call Jesus God goes beyond Sharp's rule. In Titus, the expression "our Savior" (soteros hemon) occurs six times. In five of those six occurrences, the article "the" (tou) immediately precedes "our Savior" (1:3, 4; 2:10; 3:4, 6); the one exception is Titus 2:13. The obvious and only good explanation for this variation is that "our Savior" is governed by the same article that governs "great God." Another piece of evidence in the context of Titus 2:13 is Paul's use of the word epiphaneia ("appearing”).



Another piece of evidence in the context of Titus 2:13 is Paul's use of the word epiphaneia ("appearing,”) from which we derive the word epiphany. In the Bible this word occurs only in Paul's writings, mostly in the Pastoral Epistles (2 Thess. 2:8; 1 Tim. 6:14; 2 Tim. 1:10; 4:1, 8; Titus 2:13), and always referring to the appearing of Jesus Christ, unless Titus 2:13 is the sole exception. The close parallel between Titus 2:13 and 2 Timothy 1:10 ("the appearing of our Savior Christ Jesus") effectively rules out the possibility that Titus 2:13 is an exception. So when Paul says that Christians are awaiting "the appearing of the glory of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ" (Titus 2:13), we can be sure that the one who will be "appearing" will indeed be Jesus Christ.



Several factors cumulatively offer strong support for understanding "Jesus Christ" to be identifying "our great God and Savior," not "the glory," in Titus 2:13.

1. "Our great God and Savior" is immediately adjacent to "Jesus Christ."

2. It would be odd to speak of the appearing of God's glory and not mean that the one who is appearing is God.

3. Paul never refers to Jesus as God's "glory" (2 Cor. 4:4, 6).

4. All other things being equal, a personal designation like "our great God and Savior" is more likely to be identified as a person ("Jesus Christ") than is an abstraction ("the glory").

5. Elsewhere in the Pastoral Epistles (1 and 2 Timothy, Titus), whenever Paul uses the word epiphaneia ("appearing"), it refers to the manifestation of Jesus Christ (1 Tim. 6:14; 2 Tim. 1:10; 4:1, 8), not of an abstract quality (“the glory”) related to God or Christ.

6. In as many as twelve out of eighteen times in his epistles that Paul uses the term "the glory" in the genitive case (tes doxes), it likely functions as a descriptive modifier of the preceding noun (Rom. 8:21; 9:23; Col. 1:11, 27; 1 Tim. 1:11; Titus 2:13). English translations often express this usage by the rendering "glorious." Thus, Titus 2:13 maybe better translated "the blessed hope and glorious appearing of our great God and Savior, Jesus Christ."

7. Paul immediately follows his reference to Jesus Christ by speaking of his accomplishments for our salvation (Titus 2:14), confirming that in this context Jesus Christ is "our Savior."

8. The pattern of Paul's references to "our Savior" in Titus - three references to "God our Savior" each followed closely by a reference to Jesus Christ as "our Savior" (1:3, 4; 2:10, 13; 3:4, 6) - is disrupted if 2:13 does not refer to Jesus Christ as Savior.



The epistle of 2 Peter, then, opens by affirming that Jesus Christ is "our God and Savior." It closes, appropriately, with a doxology of praise to Jesus Christ: "But grow in the grace and knowledge of our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ. To him be the glory both now and to the day of eternity. Amen" (2 Peter 3:18). The verbal parallels in those opening and closing verses between "our God and Savior Jesus Christ" and "our Lord and Savior Jesus Christ," as well as the concluding doxology directing eternal glory to Jesus Christ, are stunningly clear affirmations that Jesus Christ is indeed our Lord and our God.

Hi Mister E
This is going to be a thread on whether or not Jesus is God.....

I just want to say that YES
1 Titus 2:13 and 2 Peter 1:1 IS referring to the same person.
Anyone speaking a romance/latin language will be able to confirm this.

The lengths some will go to to disprove this, and still have the word Christian under their avatar amazes me...not necessarily anyone on this thread since I haven't checked.

And I'd be interested in knowing from miamited WHY this is so important to him since he's been posting on here for years now.

That's it.
Thanks.

 

[GodsGrace]

And who then accepted worship from his followers?

Mat 14:31 Jesus immediately reached out his hand and took hold of him, saying to him, "O you of little faith, why did you doubt?"
Mat 14:32 And when they got into the boat, the wind ceased.
Mat 14:33 And those in the boat worshiped him, saying, "Truly you are the Son of God."

It is also very important to also note the context--the ceasing of the storm--and the confession "Truly you are the Son of God."

Mat 28:8 So they departed quickly from the tomb with fear and great joy, and ran to tell his disciples.
Mat 28:9 And behold, Jesus met them and said, "Greetings!" And they came up and took hold of his feet and worshiped him.
…
Mat 28:16 Now the eleven disciples went to Galilee, to the mountain to which Jesus had directed them.
Mat 28:17 And when they saw him they worshiped him, but some doubted.

First, when he had risen. Second, when they went to see him just prior to his ascension.

Luk 24:50 Then he led them out as far as Bethany, and lifting up his hands he blessed them.
Luk 24:51 While he blessed them, he parted from them and was carried up into heaven.
Luk 24:52 And they worshiped him and returned to Jerusalem with great joy,

During his ascension.

Joh 9:35 Jesus heard that they had cast him out, and having found him he said, "Do you believe in the Son of Man?"
Joh 9:36 He answered, "And who is he, sir, that I may believe in him?"
Joh 9:37 Jesus said to him, "You have seen him, and it is he who is speaking to you."
Joh 9:38 He said, "Lord, I believe," and he worshiped him.

Note that the context begins with Jesus miraculously healing of a man born blind and then asking the man if he believed "in the Son of Man.”

Heb 1:6 And again, when he brings the firstborn into the world, he says, "Let all God's angels worship him."

The Father telling the angels to worship the Son.

Rev 5:11 Then I looked, and I heard around the throne and the living creatures and the elders the voice of many angels, numbering myriads of myriads and thousands of thousands,
Rev 5:12 saying with a loud voice, "Worthy is the Lamb who was slain, to receive power and wealth and wisdom and might and honor and glory and blessing!"
Rev 5:13 And I heard every creature in heaven and on earth and under the earth and in the sea, and all that is in them, saying, "To him who sits on the throne and to the Lamb be blessing and honor and glory and might forever and ever!"
Rev 5:14 And the four living creatures said, "Amen!" and the elders fell down and worshiped.

In heaven, the Son being worshiped alongside the Father.


But what happens when other people or angels are worshiped?

Act 10:25 When Peter entered, Cornelius met him and fell down at his feet and worshiped him.
Act 10:26 But Peter lifted him up, saying, "Stand up; I too am a man."

Col 2:18 Let no one disqualify you, insisting on asceticism and worship of angels, going on in detail about visions, puffed up without reason by his sensuous mind,

Rev 19:9 And the angel said to me, "Write this: Blessed are those who are invited to the marriage supper of the Lamb." And he said to me, "These are the true words of God."
Rev 19:10 Then I fell down at his feet to worship him, but he said to me, "You must not do that! I am a fellow servant with you and your brothers who hold to the testimony of Jesus. Worship God." For the testimony of Jesus is the spirit of prophecy.

Rev 22:8 I, John, am the one who heard and saw these things. And when I heard and saw them, I fell down to worship at the feet of the angel who showed them to me,
Rev 22:9 but he said to me, “You must not do that! I am a fellow servant with you and your brothers the prophets, and with those who keep the words of this book. Worship God.”

(All ESV.)

Clearly then, God alone is to be worshiped, yet we see that Jesus is worshiped during his ministry and time on earth--in significant contexts and without a single rebuke from Jesus--and then in heaven. This simply could not be if Jesus was not truly God.

Great post !

 

[for_his_glory]

Rev 1:8 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.

 

[SolaScriptura]

Rev 1:8 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.

 

[Free]

Rev 1:8 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.

That most likely isn't Jesus, though. But, it does show the titles used of God, "Alpha and Omega" and "the beginning and the end," (also in Rev. 21:6; "the first and the last" in Isa. 44:6, 48:12) are also used of Jesus in Rev. 1:17, 2:8, and 22:13.

 

[for_his_glory]

That most likely isn't Jesus, though. But, it does show the titles used of God, "Alpha and Omega" and "the beginning and the end," (also in Rev. 21:6; "the first and the last" in Isa. 44:6, 48:12) are also used of Jesus in Rev. 1:17, 2:8, and 22:13.

Notice the words in Rev 1:8 "and which is to come". It is Christ Jesus who will return who has always been the beginning before the foundation of the world and the beginning and end of our salvation.

 

[Free]

Notice the words in Rev 1:8 "and which is to come". It is Christ Jesus who will return who has always been the beginning before the foundation of the world and the beginning and end of our salvation.

Yes, but God the Father is to come also (it is a Trinitarian endeavour, really; you can't have one without the other two):

Rev 1:4 John to the seven churches that are in Asia: Grace to you and peace from him who is and who was and who is to come, and from the seven spirits who are before his throne,
Rev 1:5 and from Jesus Christ the faithful witness, the firstborn of the dead, and the ruler of kings on earth. To him who loves us and has freed us from our sins by his blood (ESV)

Note the distinction between "him who is and who was and who is to come" and "Jesus Christ."

Also:

Rev 21:3 And I heard a loud voice from the throne saying, “Behold, the dwelling place of God is with man. He will dwell with them, and they will be his people, and God himself will be with them as their God.
Rev 21:4 He will wipe away every tear from their eyes, and death shall be no more, neither shall there be mourning, nor crying, nor pain anymore, for the former things have passed away.”
Rev 21:5 And he who was seated on the throne said, “Behold, I am making all things new.” Also he said, “Write this down, for these words are trustworthy and true.”
Rev 21:6 And he said to me, “It is done! I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end. To the thirsty I will give from the spring of the water of life without payment.
Rev 21:7 The one who conquers will have this heritage, and I will be his God and he will be my son. (ESV)

 

[for_his_glory]

Yes, but God the Father is to come also (it is a Trinitarian endeavour, really; you can't have one without the other two):

Rev 1:4 John to the seven churches that are in Asia: Grace to you and peace from him who is and who was and who is to come, and from the seven spirits who are before his throne,
Rev 1:5 and from Jesus Christ the faithful witness, the firstborn of the dead, and the ruler of kings on earth. To him who loves us and has freed us from our sins by his blood (ESV)

Note the distinction between "him who is and who was and who is to come" and "Jesus Christ."

Also:

Rev 21:3 And I heard a loud voice from the throne saying, “Behold, the dwelling place of God is with man. He will dwell with them, and they will be his people, and God himself will be with them as their God.
Rev 21:4 He will wipe away every tear from their eyes, and death shall be no more, neither shall there be mourning, nor crying, nor pain anymore, for the former things have passed away.”
Rev 21:5 And he who was seated on the throne said, “Behold, I am making all things new.” Also he said, “Write this down, for these words are trustworthy and true.”
Rev 21:6 And he said to me, “It is done! I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end. To the thirsty I will give from the spring of the water of life without payment.
Rev 21:7 The one who conquers will have this heritage, and I will be his God and he will be my son. (ESV)

Jesus has always been the faithful witness of God being the word of God come in the flesh as a part of the Godhead come to earth in human form and will return again as every eye will see Him in the same form when He ascended back up to heaven, Acts 1:1.


Rev 1:7 Behold, he cometh with clouds; and every eye shall see him, and they also which pierced him: and all kindreds of the earth shall wail because of him. Even so, Amen.
Rev 1:8 I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the ending, saith the Lord, which is, and which was, and which is to come, the Almighty.

Rev 1:17 And when I saw him, I fell at his feet as dead. And he laid his right hand upon me, saying unto me, Fear not; I am the first and the last:
Rev 1:18 I am he that liveth, and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore, Amen; and have the keys of hell and of death.

This is all about Jesus being that part of the Trinity being the very spirit of God come in human form.

 

[MisterE]

"Yes, but God the Father is to come also (it is a Trinitarian endeavour, really; you can't have one without the other two):" by Free

This is called Modalism. It was judged a heresy by the early Church Fathers.

 

[Free]

"Yes, but God the Father is to come also (it is a Trinitarian endeavour, really; you can't have one without the other two):" by Free

This is called Modalism. It was judged a heresy by the early Church Fathers.

No, it has nothing to do with Modalism. Firstly, Revelation clearly has God coming, but it also specifically refers to Jesus coming. Secondly, the Trinity is three coeternal, coequal, divine persons of the same essence. It’s why they’re said to mutually indwell, while maintaining their distinctness--perichoresis.

Jhn 10:38 but if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me and I am in the Father.” (ESV)

Jhn 14:10 Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own authority, but the Father who dwells in me does his works.
Jhn 14:11 Believe me that I am in the Father and the Father is in me, or else believe on account of the works themselves.
...
Jhn 14:20 In that day you will know that I am in my Father, and you in me, and I in you. (ESV)

Jhn 17:21 that they may all be one, just as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be in us, so that the world may believe that you have sent me.
...
Jhn 17:23 I in them and you in me, that they may become perfectly one, so that the world may know that you sent me and loved them even as you loved me. (ESV)

You don't really get one without getting the other two, even though, somehow, it is the Son, the second person of the Trinity, that became incarnate.

 

[miamited]

And I'd be interested in knowing from @miamited WHY this is so important to him since he's been posting on here for years now.

clarification please. Why 'what' is so important to me? I'm just answering questions and describing a position on the matter that is under discussion in the OP. I'm not sure how that qualifies my interest as being 'so important' to me. This is a forum where people ask questions; propose positions and understanding on theological matters. I think that's what I'm doing, but only because it's a forum where people are supposed to respond to others even if their response may not be in agreement with the OP. That's literally what 70% of the threads on these boards is about. And especially the threads found in the discussion groups on theological matters.

So, if you're willing and able, can you tell me why you feel that my explanations and understandings that I've been giving here on this thread have given you the understanding that my interest is somehow 'so important', and not just a discussion of the matter brought up in the OP?

But on the matter of importance, yes, I believe that the word of God and understanding it properly is of pretty great importance to the believer. How about you?

 

[miamited]

I do? Gen. 1:1. Are there other beginnings?

Hi Free

Well yes. If we consider that, according to the writings of Job, that the angels rejoiced when God created this realm. Then there must have been a beginning for the angelic realm, also. God's word tells us that the angels were created beings, but they existed before this realm existed, if Job is correct in writing to us that the angels rejoiced at the creation of this realm in which mankind lives.

There was also a beginning to the calling of Abram to journey with God and raise up a nation to do God's bidding. That was never done before. God never called on the mayor of Sodom and the people of Gomorrah to follow Him and be His people.

So, if you're referring to the beginning of the creating of this realm in which mankind lives, yes, the word existed before God ever set the foundations of this realm into existence. Now, did the word exist before the angelic realm was created?

 

[MisterE]

No, it has nothing to do with Modalism. Firstly, Revelation clearly has God coming, but it also specifically refers to Jesus coming. Secondly, the Trinity is three coeternal, coequal, divine persons of the same essence. It’s why they’re said to mutually indwell, while maintaining their distinctness--perichoresis.

Jhn 10:38 but if I do them, even though you do not believe me, believe the works, that you may know and understand that the Father is in me and I am in the Father.” (ESV)

Jhn 14:10 Do you not believe that I am in the Father and the Father is in me? The words that I say to you I do not speak on my own authority, but the Father who dwells in me does his works.
Jhn 14:11 Believe me that I am in the Father and the Father is in me, or else believe on account of the works themselves.
...
Jhn 14:20 In that day you will know that I am in my Father, and you in me, and I in you. (ESV)

Jhn 17:21 that they may all be one, just as you, Father, are in me, and I in you, that they also may be in us, so that the world may believe that you have sent me.t
...
Jhn 17:23 I in them and you in me, that they may become perfectly one, so that the world may know that you sent me and loved them even as you loved me. (ESV)

You don't really get one without getting the other two, even though, somehow, it is the Son, the second person of the Trinity, that became incarnate.

I have to respectfully disagree. I think what you are saying is that because the Father indwells us, if I go somewhere, the Father goes there also by virtue of his being in me. But an omnipresent Being does not GO places, he is present everywhere.