A sin?

[Classik]

I need to keep this as private as possible.

Something happened. A woman divorced the husband thinking he was impotent. She married another man and didnt have an issue yet.

The other man afterwards married another woman and have great kids.

It's not about who is fertile and who isnt.

A thought goes that it is a sin for the man to marry another woman (...to remarry). How is this an adultery or what makes it a sin?

Please do not ask me for details. I think its clear enough.

 

[Obadiah]

It's a little hard to know how to answer without more details, and I understand why you wouldn't want to go there. I'm wondering if perhaps the woman had already committed adultery against her husband with the 2nd man that she eventually married, or was at least planning on it to the point that she had committed adultery with him "in her heart" as Jesus spoke of in the sermon on the mount. IF this were the case (as is very common today) then she is an adulteress and the first husband is free to leave her (or let her leave him) and is free to re-marry.

I had a lengthy discussion about this kind of thing with a pastor once. We really didn't come to any kind of definite conclusion, but we were discussing when a divorce is even recognized in God's eyes. In other words, if two people made a vow of marriage before God and they divorce without a Biblical reason (adultery or fornication), does God even recognize that divorce? I have to really question that God would honor a piece of paper issued by a human government that says they are divorced when there was no grounds for divorce authorized by God (no one had committed adultery or fornication). If God doesn't recognize the divorce in the case you are talking about, even if there wasn't adultery when the woman left her husband, there is now since she is pretty obviously sleeping with a new man (if indeed God didn't recognize her divorce from her first husband). And if this IS the way God sees it, then she has committed adultery against her first husband even if it occurred after getting secular divorce papers, and he is free to go on and marry another woman. Of course, I'm also assuming the first husband never agreed to the divorce and hopefully refused to sign any papers saying he would agree to it. If he did agree to it, well then all bets are off unless she had actually committed adultery before their secular divorce.

However, like I said, the pastor and I never really came to any concrete conclusions about this. It's just something to ponder...

 

[Jethro Bodine]

The point is, adultery violates and ends a marriage union. That's what's wrong with adultery. The woman had already done that when she remarried. It's kind of a moot point for the husband to be thinking about whether or not him remarrying would be an adulterous affront to the marriage that she had already ended by her own adultery.

IMO, the man is free to remarry. There is no marriage left for him to be considering whether him remarrying could be committing adultery against a previous relationship that doesn't exist anymore because of her adultery.

Each man/woman has to be convinced in their own mind about this topic. I have shared how I feel about it.

 

[for_his_glory]

She was wrong to leave her husband not knowing for sure if they could or could not have children as she only speculated they could not. She placed children as her idol, which is another form of adultery, above that of God and Gods union of their marriage. This man is free to marry another women.

Gen 2:23 And Adam said, This is now bone of my bones, and flesh of my flesh: she shall be called Woman, because she was taken out of Man.
Gen 2:24 Therefore shall a man leave his father and his mother, and shall cleave unto his wife: and they shall be one flesh.

Mat 19:4 And he answered and said unto them, Have ye not read, that he which made them at the beginning made them male and female,
Mat 19:5 And said, For this cause shall a man leave father and mother, and shall cleave to his wife: and they twain shall be one flesh?
Mat 19:6 Wherefore they are no more twain, but one flesh. What therefore God hath joined together, let not man put asunder.

1 Corinthians 7:10, Jesus commands the woman not to leave her husband and if she does she should remain unmarried, but in Malachi 2:10-16 the treachery that man commits against a woman which leads him to have an affair outside of the marriage or abuses the wife whether it be physical or emotional gives place to what was said by Moses in Deuteronomy 24:1-4 that if a woman is no longer pleasing to her husband then the husband should give his wife a written bill of divorcement and send her out of the house and this gives the woman the right to marry again, but she can never go back to her former husband if that marriage does not work out or her husband dies for now she is defiled to be with her first husband and this is an abomination to God.

 

[Michael74]

2 Christians are commanded to remain married to each other. They are further commanded to love each other. No exceptions for infertility are listed.

"To the married I give this command (not I, but the Lord): A wife must not separate from her husband. But if she does, she must remain unmarried or else be reconciled to her husband. And a husband must not divorce his wife." 1 Corinthians 7:10-11 NIV

If a Christian is married to a pagan, then this Scripture applies:

"But if the unbeliever leaves, let it be so. The brother or the sister is not bound in such circumstances; God has called us to live in peace." 1 Corinthians 7:15 NIV

 

[Classik]

It's a little hard to know how to answer without more details, and I understand why you wouldn't want to go there. I'm wondering if perhaps the woman had already committed adultery against her husband with the 2nd man that she eventually married, or was at least planning on it to the point that she had committed adultery with him "in her heart" as Jesus spoke of in the sermon on the mount. IF this were the case (as is very common today) then she is an adulteress and the first husband is free to leave her (or let her leave him) and is free to re-marry.

I had a lengthy discussion about this kind of thing with a pastor once. We really didn't come to any kind of definite conclusion, but we were discussing when a divorce is even recognized in God's eyes. In other words, if two people made a vow of marriage before God and they divorce without a Biblical reason (adultery or fornication), does God even recognize that divorce? I have to really question that God would honor a piece of paper issued by a human government that says they are divorced when there was no grounds for divorce authorized by God (no one had committed adultery or fornication). If God doesn't recognize the divorce in the case you are talking about, even if there wasn't adultery when the woman left her husband, there is now since she is pretty obviously sleeping with a new man (if indeed God didn't recognize her divorce from her first husband). And if this IS the way God sees it, then she has committed adultery against her first husband even if it occurred after getting secular divorce papers, and he is free to go on and marry another woman. Of course, I'm also assuming the first husband never agreed to the divorce and hopefully refused to sign any papers saying he would agree to it. If he did agree to it, well then all bets are off unless she had actually committed adultery before their secular divorce.

However, like I said, the pastor and I never really came to any concrete conclusions about this. It's just something to ponder...

Thanks a lot. I think such a matter requires wisdom. Well. She left him. There was no case of adultery. She left because she thought the man was a 'no man'. She left and got married to another man...believing she would have babies. Same problem. The man likewise got married again and had babies with the new wife. (Maybe he never really wanted a divorce or to part with the first wife. But you can see, and I'm just guessing....he probably justified remarrying after it was obvious he's fertile and that wife isn't yet.)