XTruth said:
Then that means man has a "triality" nature? Man doesn't have a soul and is a soul.
There are 3 deaths and 3 lifes of Scripture. I wasn't even talking about the 3 parts of man. You just want to argue don't you?
3 deaths and 3 lives? :crazy
Hbr 9:27 And as it is appointed unto men once to die, but after this the judgment:
Brother, I think you been asked by the mods here to leave personal attacks alone. No need to equate me with being cunning like Satan. That's unproductive.
Sorry Mods, sorry RND. i WASN'T TRYING TO GIVE YOU A PERSONAL Attack, I was just making you aware that I know what you are doing.
I accpet your apology, and trust me the only thing I'm doing is asking questions.
Adam lived to be 930 years. A day to the Lord is like a thousand years (2 Pe 3:8). So indeed Adam died that day.
The Hebrew word used in Gen.2:17 is "yowm." It literally means a 24 hour period. Do you also believe that God made creation in 6,000 years? Also, I answer all your questions as best as possible. Do me the same respect and answer my question about whether or not you believe in soul sleep...it sounds like you do and would greatly help me understand where it is you are coming from :yes
I'm a fan of Bishop Usher's chronology. Hence, indeed the earth is 6 days old (6.000 years) and the 7th day is the sabbath of the earth for 1,000 years.
Also, I do not believe in "soul sleep." Souls die. Man is a "living soul."
Pro 19:16 He that keepeth the commandment keepeth his own soul; [but] he that despiseth his ways shall die.
Eze 18:4 Behold, all souls are mine; as the soul of the father, so also the soul of the son is mine: the soul that sinneth, it shall die.
Eze 18:20 The soul that sinneth, it shall die. The son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear the iniquity of the son: the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him.
So again, Satan was right. The "inner man" lives forever. But the Bible says "eternal life" is a gift. Is burning in hell forever a "gift?"
Eternal life is a gift. Jesus is Life (Jn.14:6). Apart from Him, eternal life does not exist. But that is b/c the lost and damned are not with God due to their own will to place their authority above His.
Then if they are apart from the life source they're dead. Certainly, based on scripture they aren't being burned for eternity. Only the "righteous" can stand the flames!
Isa 33:14 The sinners in Zion are afraid; fearfulness hath surprised the hypocrites. Who among us shall dwell with the devouring fire? who among us shall dwell with everlasting burnings? 15 He that walketh righteously, and speaketh uprightly; he that despiseth the gain of oppressions, that shaketh his hands from holding of bribes, that stoppeth his ears from hearing of blood, and shutteth his eyes from seeing evil; 16 He shall dwell on high: his place of defence [shall be] the munitions of rocks: bread shall be given him; his waters [shall be] sure.
They are eternal beings too. The same "eternal" used in Rom.6:23 is also used in Heb.6:2 for the doctrine of eternal judgment. Both "eternal's" are from the Greek word "aionios," (also used of past times, or past and future as well):- eternal, for ever, everlasting, world (began). Both eternal's are forever. Let's avoid splitting this hair any longer.
No hair splitting. If man is "eternal" outside of the presence of the Lord then Satan was right.
All have eternal existance, not eternal life, as I have already explained what sense of the word I was using for a time now. I've also already answered your repeated question about Satan being right...he was deceiving Eve by telling her she would not die, since the serpent was still physically alive. She thought the death would've been physical...didn't understand the spiritual part, who knows if she even knew there was an eternal death...like the ones in hell that exist right now and will be thrown into the lake of fire at their judgment (Rev.20:11-15)...their eternal judgment, for the sentence lasts for eternity...while existing...some would say that they are alive, by definition, but I know that confuses some. They do not have eternal life, since they have no abiding life in them, though they exist...understand?
No, actually there is nothing in the scriptures that describe existing in any fashion outside the presence of the Lord.
Again, Satan was right. Yet, man is always described as being "mortal" not "immortal."
The physical body is what is referred to as mortal (1 Cor.15:50-54).
Is there another body I'm not aware of?
The point I made was fairly clear and fairly simple. Man is not "immortal" without God. Eternal life is a gift. Roasting, toasting and fricasseeing in hell forever is not a "gift."
Okay...you answered my question. You do believe that the unrighteous become extinct at death. Next time, don't beat around the bush. I guess you also believe that God makes the unrighteous extinct souls come to life more than 1,000 years after dying (Rev.20), just to be sentenced to extinction again. Am I right?
Did you ask a question about what I believed? And your only partly right. The first resurrection is only for the righteous (Rev. 20:4). The second resurrection is for the wicked when they will see why they are not saved.
Job 14:10-15.... In Job's time all sou8ls- those of the righteous as well as those who were wicked- went to sheol; but they were confined to separate compartments, one being a place of bliss and the other one of torture (Lk.16:19-31).
In Job's time? You mean God is the same yesterday, today and tomorrow? BTW, you may want to brush up on Luke 16:19-31. It's a parable.
Who are the five brothers? Hint: Judah had five blood brothers.
When Christ went to sheol to liberate the righteous souls and take them to heaven with Him at His ascension, this ended the entrance of righteous souls into sheol (Ps.16:10; Eph.4:8-10; Heb.2:14-15).
Read 1 Peter 3:18-20 again. The same Holy Spirit that spoke to those in Noah's day is the same Spirit that raised Jesus from the dead.
"Christ also suffered when he died for our sins once for all time. He never sinned, but he died for sinners that he might bring us safely home to God. He suffered physical death, but he was raised to life in the Spirit. So he went and preached to the spirits in prison--those who disobeyed God long ago when God waited patiently while Noah was building his boat. Only eight people were saved from drowning in that terrible flood.*
"Prison" is metaphorical for being outside of the presence of the Lord. I.E. the grave.
Psa 142:7 Bring my soul out of prison, that I may praise thy name: the righteous shall compass me about; for thou shalt deal bountifully with me.
Now when a righteous person dies, the body still goes into the grave, but the soul and spirit go into heaven to await the time of the resurrection of the dead body (2 Cor.5:8; Phil.1:21-24; Heb.12:22-23; Rev.6:9-11).
What purpose would that serve to go to heaven but have to come back to earth for a glorified body? That didn't happen to Jesus.
Do you have any scriptures that says the soul comes back to earth to receive a glorified body? Just one.
verse 13..."the grave"...Hebrew word is "sheol," the place of departed spirits, not "qeber," the grave, or place of body at death.
Do you know of another place departed souls go to other than the grave?
Anything else, or are we done here?
I don't know. Do you still believe in the "Hellenistic" notion of the duality of man? Tell me, what's the difference between the Christian notion that the soul floats to heaven at death and the Hindu belief that the soul floats off into a cow?
I have a few more questions that maybe you'd be good enough to address:
If Hell is real and if good people go to heaven and bad people go to Hell, why does EVERYONE, good or bad, go to the same place in the Old Testament? They ALL go to Sheol which the King James Version translated "Hell" thirty-0ne times, "grave" thirty-one times and "pit" three times? Are we all destined to go to Hell or did the King's translators make some gross translation errors?
If Hell is real, why don't the Jews, many who know the Old Testament better than most Christians, not believe in the modern Christian concept of Hell? They say they don't believe it because it is not in their Scriptures. Most scholars today can not find Hell in the Old Testament. Most leading Bible translations no longer contain the word Hell in the entire Old Testament. (Genesis through Malachi.)
If Hell doesn't exist in the Old Testament, how could Jesus and his disciples teach that salvation was deliverance from a place that is not even found in their Scriptures? (There was only the Old Testament at that time.) Would that not make Him appear like a false teacher? Or could it be that Jesus never taught such a concept in the first place? Could it be that this concept has been added to the church and SOME Bibles through "traditions of men?"
If Hell is real, since SOME English translations use the word Hell for the Greek word "Gehenna," in the New Testament, why didn't this same place (Gehenna) get translated Hell in the many places where it appears in the Hebrew form "ga ben Hinnom" in the Old Testament? If the Jews did not understand this valley as a symbol of everlasting torture, why do SOME English translations give this word such a meaning? And who burned who in this valley? And what was God's response for Israel doing such a horrible thing to their children? (Jer. 32:33-35) And how could God say "such a thing never entered His mind" if in fact He is going to do the very same thing to most of His own children?
If Hell was real, why didn't the church teach it until AFTER the church departed from reading the Bible in Greek and Hebrew, substituting Latin in its stead several centuries after Christ's death?
If Hell was real, why did not a single Christian writer of the first 3 centuries declare universalism as a heresy?
If Hell was real why didn't a single one of the early creeds express any idea contrary to universal restoration, or in favor of everlasting punishment in Hell?
If Hell was real why did not a single Church council for the first five hundred years condemn Universalism as heresy considering the fact that they made many declarations of heresy on other teachings?
If Hell was real, why did most of the early church's leading scholars and most revered saints advocate universal salvation?
If Hell was real, how is it that the most prominent universalists of the early church were born into Christian families and were most highly revered by their peers while those who advocated Hell came from paganism and confessed they were among the vilest?
If Hell was real and found in the original Greek manuscripts of the Bible, why is it that it was primarily those church leaders who either couldn't read Greek (Minucius Felix, Tertullian), or hated Greek as in the case of Augustine, that the doctrine of Hell was advocated? Those early church leaders familiar with the Greek and Hebrew (the original languages of the Bible) saw universal salvation in those texts. Those who advocated Hell got it from the Latin, NOT from the original Greek and Hebrew. Who would more likely be correct--those who could read the original languages of the Bible or those who read a Latin translation made by one man (Jerome)?
If Hell was real why do most leading historians acknowledge that the early church was dominated by universalism?
If Hell was real then why did four out of six theological schools from 170 AD to 430 AD teach universal salvation while the only one that taught Hell was in Carthage, Africa, again where Latin was the teaching language, not Greek?
If Hell was real why didn't Epiphanius (c. 315-403) the "hammer of heretics" who listed 80 heresies of his time not list universalism among those heresies?
If Hell was real, since most historians would acknowledge today that Origen was perhaps the most outstanding example of early universalism in the church, when Methodius, Eusibius, Pamphilus, Marcellus, Eustathius, and Jerome made their lists of Origen's heresies, why wasn't universalism among them? Could it be perhaps that it wasn't a heresy in the original church?
If Hell was real and a serious heresy, why was it not until the sixth century when Justinian, a half-pagan emperor, tried to make universalism a heresy? Interestingly, most historians will acknowledge that Justinian's reign was among the most cruel and ruthless.
If Hell was real, since the early church was closest to the apostles and since they were closest to the original manuscripts of the Bible, why did the vast majority of the early Christian believers NOT believe in Hell as a place of everlasting burnings?
If Hell was real and all died NOT because of their transgressions but because of Adam's transgression (Rom 5:18), why do many Christians not see what is plainly written, that "even so through one Man's righteous act the free gift came to ALL MEN, resulting in JUSTIFICATION OF LIFE!" (Rom. 5:18) This Scripture declares the FACT that all are justified due to Christ's righteous act. No one "decided" to die in Adam, it was "reckoned" to us. Equally no one "decided" to "receive eternal life," it is also "reckoned" to us. (A thorough understanding of Romans Chapter five carefully comparing several English translations would be a very good exercise. The omission of the definite article "the" in Rom. 5:15 before the word "many" in some translations has caused some great misunderstanding of this most important chapter of the Bible.)
If Hell is real, in Romans 5:19, the "many" who were made sinners were actually "all" of the human race. Why is the "many" who were made "righteous" not equally be "all" of the human race? "For as by one man's disobedience MANY were made sinners, so also by one Man's obedience MANY will be made righteous."
If Hell is real and everlasting, why does Psalm 30:5 say His anger is but for a moment?
That's just a few of the many questions that could be asked about the notion than man is "immortal."