Drew said:
Hello Bubba:
Do you have an answer to my question about Jesus in regard to his belief that He might escape the cross (Matthew 26:39). It is relevant to your use of Rev 13:8 in a previous post.
If Jesus thought it was possible that He might not need to go to the cross, then how does Rev 13:8 really establish that He was slain "from the foundation of the world"?
Drew,
I posted this on a different thread in regards to the impeccability of Christ:
The Impeccability of the Lord Jesus Christ
Mark 1:12-13
by John A. Kohler, III
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The purpose of the temptation of the Lord Jesus Christ was not to determine whether or not He would sin, but to demonstrate the fact that He would not and could not sin.
I. God cannot be tempted (Jas. 1:13-14).
A. He does not directly or immediately tempt or entice human beings to sin.
B. He Himself cannot be tempted from within His own divine nature.
II. God Incarnate could be and often was tempted (Mat. 4:1-11; 26:36-44; Lk. 22:28,39-46; Heb. 2:16-18; 4:14-16).
A. He suffered being tempted or enticed to sin (Heb. 2:18).
B. He was in all points tempted like as we are, yet He had no sin nature as we do (Heb. 4:15).
C. Since He had no sin nature within (Lk. 1:35; I Jn. 3:5), He had to be tempted totally from without.
III. God Incarnate was able not to sin because He was not able to sin.
A. In His divine nature, He was not able to be tempted or to sin. In His human nature, He was able to be tempted and to sin. Since His divine nature and human nature were united in one Person, His divine nature controlled His human nature. Before the Fall, Adam had a sinless human nature, but he did not have a divine nature that would control his human nature.
B. The fact that He was not able to sin does not mean that He was not able, in His human nature, to be tempted to sin. Just because something is an utter impossibility does not mean that it cannot be hardily attempted.
C. The immutability of Christ proves His impeccability (Heb. 1:12; 13:8). If He was able to sin while He was here on earth, then He was able to sin before He came to earth, and He is able to sin now that He has left the earth.
D. The omnipotence of Christ proves His impeccability (Mat. 28:18).
His human nature was not omnipotent and was, therefore, temptable and peccable, but His human nature was controlled by His omnipotent divine nature, which was neither temptable nor peccable.
E. The omniscience of Christ proves His impeccability (Jn. 2:25).
Since He had a controlling, omniscient divine nature, He was not able to be deceived or tricked into sinning and could clearly see the consequences of sin.
F. The deity of Christ proves His impeccability (Jn. 1:1).
If He had been a man only, then He could have sinned, but He was the God-man.
G. The authority of Christ proves His impeccability (Jn. 10:18). Since He had authority over life and death, surely He had authority over sin.
H. The absolute sovereignty of God proves Christ’s impeccability (Isa. 46:9-10).
In eternity past, God had not only decreed as a part of His eternal plan that Jesus would be tempted, but that He would be victorious over temptation. He had also decreed Christ’s crucifixion, resurrection, ascension, enthronement, second coming, Millennial reign, and eternal glory. If Jesus could have sinned, it would have totally ruined God’s plan for the ages. Both God the Father (Acts 15:10; I Cor. 10:9; Heb. 3:9) and God the Holy Spirit (Acts 5:9) were tempted from without by men. Yet, no one suggests that they were able to sin. Why should anyone believe, then, that God the Son was able to sin just because He was able to be tempted?
Take some time and think about comment H. I personally believe as a man, Jesus was horrified at the thought that He was going take upon the wrath of God and be severed from the relationship He had with the Father since eternity and the temptation was to seek another way. We know the outcome; He did not succumb to this temptation. Yet, much about this whole impeccability verses peccabilty of Jesus is beyond our understanding, but we try nonetheless.
Regardless of our total ability to understand how something could be, we still must deal with the text and Rev. 13:8 and 17:8 do make statements that occurred before the foundation of the earth. Yet, we must stay true to the author’s intent even though we can’t fathom it’s depths.
Blessings, Bubba