There was only one version of John 1:1 listed and it doesn’t support your claim. So, again, which Trinitarians?.....................................
See for yourself in the Greek:
https://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/joh1.pdf
Join For His Glory for a discussion on how
https://christianforums.net/threads/a-vessel-of-honor.110278/
https://christianforums.net/threads/psalm-70-1-save-me-o-god-lord-help-me-now.108509/
Read through the following study by Tenchi for more on this topic
https://christianforums.net/threads/without-the-holy-spirit-we-can-do-nothing.109419/
Join Sola Scriptura for a discussion on the subject
https://christianforums.net/threads/anointed-preaching-teaching.109331/#post-1912042
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There was only one version of John 1:1 listed and it doesn’t support your claim. So, again, which Trinitarians?.....................................
See for yourself in the Greek:
https://www.scripture4all.org/OnlineInterlinear/NTpdf/joh1.pdf
It demonstrable that the Holy Spirit is sometimes an anointing and sometimes just another name for God. God the Father, who is holy and is Spirit is therefore Holy Spirit. It isn't a reference to another person. Our spirit is not a different person in relation to ourselves nor is God's Spirit a different person.There are verses that throw a pretty big wrench in this perspective though.
John 14:21 Jesus says that He will manifest HIMSELF unto those who love Him and keep His Commandments (which are the Father's 10 Commandments [Jn. 15:10; Matt. 23:1-3]). When asked to clarify what He means by this in verse 22, Jesus reiterates by explaining that when He says He will manifest "HIMSELF" to us, what He means is that He and the Father will come to make their home with us. Note: zero mention of a Holy Spirit because God IS a spirit and Rom. 8:9-11 makes the case that JESUS is the Holy Spirit. (Jesus is God and God is a spirit [Jn. 4:24])
This blows the idea of the Father and Son being separate right out of the water. If God were three persons, Jesus would have certainly mentioned the 3rd "person" somewhere, some way, in John 14:21-23.
How is it demonstrable?It demonstrable that the Holy Spirit is sometimes an anointing and sometimes just another name for God.
It doesn’t follow that because the Father is holy and spirit that he is the Holy Spirit. Being holy and being spirit are two of his attributes.God the Father, who is holy and is Spirit is therefore Holy Spirit. It isn't a reference to another person.
We aren’t Gods either, so that’s a false analogy.Our spirit is not a different person in relation to ourselves nor is God's Spirit a different person.
The Holy Spirit anoints but cannot be said to be an anointing.On the other hand, sometimes the Holy Spirit is an anointing such as is the case in Acts 10:39, where Jesus was anointed with God's Holy Spirit at John's water baptism of repentance.
Such as?There are many examples of "the spirit of X thing..." in the Bible.
It seems that you’re still just begging the question. Continually throughout the NT, the Holy Spirit is mentioned as distinct from both the Father and the Son. The three are often mentioned together, such as at Jesus’s baptism and in the so-called Great Commission. It makes no sense whatsoever that the NT is consistent in separating the Father and the Holy Spirit if they are one and the same. Even one mention of the Holy Spirit would be pointless.It is often used in reference to an anointing, i.e., the gift of God's nature, not literally God giving Himself as a gift. Acts 1:4-8, Acts 2:17,18, etc.
I quoted some verses and some basic reasoning.How is it demonstrable?
God is holy and Spirit and it doesn't follow He is Holy Spirit? Why do you say that?It doesn’t follow that because the Father is holy and spirit that he is the Holy Spirit. Being holy and being spirit are two of his attributes.
That's reference to the gift of the Holy Spirit in Acts 1.
It refers to an anointing called the Spirit of Truth. The Spirit of Truth isn't a 4th member of the Trinity, distinct from the others. It's about God doing the guding with His anointing.This shows that the Holy Spirit is neither the Son nor the Father, and that the Son isn’t the Father. All three are here made and kept clearly distinct from each other.
In case there is any doubt about the Father not being the Holy Spirit:
Jhn 15:26 “But when the Helper comes, whom I will send to you from the Father, the Spirit of truth, who proceeds from the Father, he will bear witness about me. (ESV)
That's an anointing again. There is no reference to people praying to the Holy Spirit or the Holy Spirit talking in the Bible.
The Father isn't Holy and Spirit? Jesus said otherwise.The overall biblical witness is that the Holy Spirit is not the Father.
It's a perfect analogy because we're made in God's image.We aren’t Gods either, so that’s a false analogy.
The Bible says it is.The Holy Spirit anoints but cannot be said to be an anointing.
Such as?
It seems that you’re still just begging the question. Continually throughout the NT, the Holy Spirit is mentioned as distinct from both the Father and the Son. The three are often mentioned together, such as at Jesus’s baptism and in the so-called Great Commission. It makes no sense whatsoever that the NT is consistent in separating the Father and the Holy Spirit if they are one and the same. Even one mention of the Holy Spirit would be pointless.
......................................There was only one version of John 1:1 listed and it doesn’t support your claim. So, again, which Trinitarians?
That would be primarily a Trinitarian position, but it's not the Bible's position.The overall biblical witness is that the Holy Spirit is not the Father.
Yes, and I quoted some verses and showed that your reasoning is not sound.I quoted some verses and some basic reasoning.
For the reasons I gave:God is holy and Spirit and it doesn't follow He is Holy Spirit? Why do you say that?
Yes, but the language clearly speaks of the Holy Spirit, not the Father; the Father sends the Holy Spirit, just as he sent his Son.That's reference to the gift of the Holy Spirit in Acts 1.
The Spirit of truth is just another name for the Holy Spirit; he has several names.It refers to an anointing called the Spirit of Truth. The Spirit of Truth isn't a 4th member of the Trinity, distinct from the others. It's about God doing the guding with His anointing.
Then perhaps you are not as well studied as you think. Do people pray to the Holy Spirit? No. Jesus said to pray to the Father in his name. The Holy Spirit has a different role than both Jesus and the Father, and he never brings glory to himself; he always points to Christ.John 16
13When the Spirit of truth comes, he will guide you into all the truth, for he will not speak on his own authority, but whatever he hears he will speak, and he will declare to you the things that are to come.
That's an anointing again. There is no reference to people praying to the Holy Spirit or the Holy Spirit talking in the Bible.
That very clearly was not what I said.The Father isn't Holy and Spirit? Jesus said otherwise.
What do you even mean by "an anointing"? Let's start there.On the other hand, you are almost there. Why can't the holy spirit sometimes be an anointing?
Using your reasoning, then, God also has a physical body.It's a perfect analogy because we're made in God's image.
Where?The Bible says it is.
Now that I know what you mean, yes, I agree. Why would the Holy Spirit be called "the Spirit of Christ" if he really was the Father?Too many to list, but there is a spirit of truth, a spirit of Christ, a spirit of wisdom, a holy spirit, etc...
Of course the Holy Spirit would have the same knowledge. And, no, that doesn't contradict Jesus's statement.In Matthew 11:27 Jesus said that only the Father truly knows the Son, and vice versa, saying, "...no one knows the Son except the Father; nor does anyone know the Father except the Son...." If the Trinity were accurate, suggesting that the Holy Spirit is a distinct "Person" within the Godhead, then the Holy Spirit would also have knowledge of both the Father and the Son. This would contradict Jesus' statement.
You first stated: "First, as trinitarian grammarians will tell you, John 1:1c (Lit. "and theos was the word") has the predicate noun theos coming before its verb. In fact, this is what trinitarians have falsely used to pretend that the predicate noun has "the" understood."......................................
I'm sorry, I don't understand your question. The Greek clearly shows that theos (the predicate noun) comes before the verb "was" (HN or En). This is exactly what we have in the nearly 20 proper examples I've given.
What's interesting is that you skipped what was plainly stated in the rest of verse 9:That would be primarily a Trinitarian position, but it's not the Bible's position.
"... if so be that the Spirit of God dwell in you. ..."
Rom. 8:9
"... if the Spirit of Him that raised up Jesus from the dead dwell in you, He that raised up Christ from the dead shall also quicken your mortal bodies by His Spirit that dwelleth in you."
Rom. 8:11
That's just begging the question though. The Father is spirit and the Holy Spirit is also, obviously, spirit. It doesn't follow that because they are both spirit that they are one and the same person; they are, however, the same substance. The Son clearly was spirit before the incarnation, but he is clearly distinct from the Father.Also, the John 14:21-23 verse I posted to you before supports the concept of the Father being the Holy Spirit as He cannot live with us unless He is a Spirit. (John 4:24)
If the Holy Spirit is another person then saying "no one" knows the Son except the Father and vice versa would exclude the Holy Spirit from being someone who knows the Father or Son. Sorry, but that's exactly what Jesus said. Think about it.Of course the Holy Spirit would have the same knowledge. And, no, that doesn't contradict Jesus's statement.
Well yes, because Christ is God.Paul is clearly equating "the Spirit of God" with "the Spirit of Christ."
I guess you are saying that you are ignorant of Colwell's Rule which so many trinitarians jumped on from 1933 onward to 'prove' the grammar of John 1:1c as telling us the word was (the) god. It is still used by some today, but another 'rule' was made up in 1973 by Harner which tells us that such word orders (Colwell constructions) make the predicate noun "qualitative." Both 'rules' are disproved by the list I have given you.You first stated: "First, as trinitarian grammarians will tell you, John 1:1c (Lit. "and theos was the word") has the predicate noun theos coming before its verb. In fact, this is what trinitarians have falsely used to pretend that the predicate noun has "the" understood."
I replied: "Which Trinitarians?"
You responded with your link, but your link only has one version of the entirety of John 1, nothing more. So, I don't know your what link is supposed to show, since it doesn't have anything to do with what I had asked.
And that is what I asked for: which Trinitarians? Who, exactly?I guess you are saying that you are ignorant of Colwell's Rule which so many trinitarians jumped on from 1933 onward to 'prove' the grammar of John 1:1c as telling us the word was (the) god. It is still used by some today,
You didn’t give me a list. You gave me a translation of John 1:1. At this point, rules are irrelevant since God himself says there never has been nor will be another God or god. So, “a god” is precluded; it’s over before it can begin.but another 'rule' was made up in 1973 by Harner which tells us that such word orders (Colwell constructions) make the predicate noun "qualitative." Both 'rules' are disproved by the list I have given you.
It’s best if you just post the relevant bits here. I don’t have the time to read through everything.I know you won't read the studies I have done, so there's no reason for you ask me anything else about John 1:1c.
http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2011/11/colwells-jbl-article-definite-rule-for.html
Colwells-Rule-and-John-1_1-1.pdf (journaloftheology.org)
http://examiningthetrinity.blogspot.com/2009/10/harners-jbl-article-on-qualitative.html
Exactly, but he isn’t the Father either. Remember, your point was that the Father is the Holy Spirit, and my point, by showing that the Holy Spirit is also called the Spirit of Christ, is that that cannot be the case. If Jesus isn’t the Father and the Holy Spirit is called (among other things) both the Spirit of Christ and the Spirit of God, it follows that the Father cannot be the Holy Spirit and the Holy Spirit must be distinct from both.Well yes, because Christ is God.
When the NT refers to God, it can mean the Father, such as in John 4:24, but it can just generally mean God, with no reference to specific persons.How do you interpret John 4:24? If God is a Spirit, which of the 3 is that verse talking about?
The singular “he” and “him” very often refer to the Trinity; God is one being.And if that verse says "Him", that can't be talking about all 3 persons so which one is it talking about?
I don’t know what you think Jesus is saying in John 14:21-23. First, Jesus is not the Father. Just so we’re clear. Second, neither Jesus nor the Father are ever referred to as the Spirit.I've never cherry-picked from Romans 8:9-11. I believe that entire passage supports my position. It interchangeably refers to Christ and the Father as the Spirit - just the same way Jesus refers to Himself in John 14:21-23.
I don’t understand what your point is. Of course the Father is spirit, I’ve never stated otherwise. And, it’s “spirit,” not “Spirit.” The former is a statement about his incorporeal nature; the latter is the Holy Spirit.How else can the Father come to live with us unless He is Spirit?
Yes, I know what Jesus said, but what he said doesn’t preclude the Holy Spirit, unless you want to believe that the inspired Scriptures contradicts itself:If the Holy Spirit is another person then saying "no one" knows the Son except the Father and vice versa would exclude the Holy Spirit from being someone who knows the Father or Son. Sorry, but that's exactly what Jesus said. Think about it.
Matt 11
27All things have been entrusted to Me by My Father. No one knows the Son except the Father, and no one knows the Father except the Son and those to whom the Son chooses to reveal Him.
I am glad you quoted 1 Corinthians 2:10,11 because it's clear that the spirit of a person is not a second person. You being two or more persons in one being is not a Biblical doctrine. So my point still stands.Yes, I know what Jesus said, but what he said doesn’t preclude the Holy Spirit, unless you want to believe that the inspired Scriptures contradicts itself:
1Co 2:10 these things God has revealed to us through the Spirit. For the Spirit searches everything, even the depths of God.
1Co 2:11 For who knows a person's thoughts except the spirit of that person, which is in him? So also no one comprehends the thoughts of God except the Spirit of God. (ESV).
I don't agree with that theory.What you’re missing, I think, is that Jesus came to do the work of the Father and reveal him. This is why he talks much about the Father and his relationship with him. The Father, to the Jews, is Yahweh. That is why Jesus is very careful about his identity as God; he is promoting monotheism and avoiding confusion.
When they falsely accused him, he denied being God.The Jews do, however, try to stone Jesus at least twice for claiming to be God or equal to God.
Only the Father is YHWH. He calls Himself the only God and so does Jesus.In reality, the Father, the Son, and the Holy Spirit are Yahweh.
Again, we’re not God, so that is a false analogy. The Holy Spirit is continuously and consistently kept distinct from the Father, which is pointless if the the Gather is the Holy Spirit.I am glad you quoted 1 Corinthians 2:10,11 because it's clear that the spirit of a person is not a second person. You being two or more persons in one being is not a Biblical doctrine. So my point still stands.
Why not?I don't agree with that theory.
Where? Even Thomas called Jesus his Lord and his God and Jesus never denied it.When they falsely accused him, he denied being God.
To say the at only the Father is Yahweh is fallaciously begging the question. You’re also conflating the use of Father in Isaiah 64 with the self-existent nature of God. God is said to be the Father of Israel, but that is speaking relationally of his creating them, protecting them, providing for them, loving them, etc. Notice that “You are our Father” is then explained or expanded upon with “we are the clay, you are the potter; we are all the work of Your hand.”Only the Father is YHWH. He calls Himself the only God and so does Jesus.
Isaiah 64
8But now, O LORD, You are our Father;
we are the clay, and You are the potter;
we are all the work of Your hand.