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Godhead ='s Doctrine Of Christ!

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Hebrew idioms = elohim and Yahweh, there is no need to use them in an English translation. Their basic English connotations are equivalent to "Lord - yahweh", and "God - elohim". So the application in an English translation should read God and Lord, not elohim and yahweh. Someone has confused these descriptive idioms with the actual name of God, when they describe God & Lord, and are not the names of God.

Anyway we are at least 2 miles off topic. :sorry
 
samuel said:
Hebrew idioms = elohim and Yahweh, there is no need to use them in an English translation. Their basic English connotations are equivalent to "Lord - yahweh", and "God - elohim". So the application in an English translation should read God and Lord, not elohim and yahweh. Someone has confused these descriptive idioms with the actual name of God, when they describe God & Lord, and are not the names of God.

Anyway we are at least 2 miles off topic. :sorry
You ignor the facts and make your own truth as you go, so Im ending this conversation. good bye.
 
samuel said:
John 14:9 Jesus saith unto him, Have I been so long time with you, and yet hast thou not known me, Philip? he that hath seen me hath seen the Father; and how sayest thou then, Shew us the Father?
John 17:21 That they all may be one; as thou, Father, art in me, and I in thee, that they also may be one in us: that the world may believe that thou hast sent me.
John 17:23 I in them, and thou in me, that they may be made perfect in one; and that the world may know that thou hast sent me, and hast loved them, as thou hast loved me.

Do we need more???.

These scriptures provides no basis of the trinity, for concerning the Father, Jesus told the Jews that "not that any man has seen the Father, except he who is from the Father; this one has seen the Father."(John 6:46) Some 65 years after Jesus resurrection, the apostle John wrote that "no man has seen God at any time."(1 John 4:12) John then says that "the only-begotten god who is in the bosom position with the Father is the one that has explained him."(John 1:18)
 
The King James Bible translators didn't hide God's Name in the New Testament Books, because when the Greek was used the original writers like Apostle Paul had to use the available Greek words for our Heavenly Father. I think that's why Paul went in detailed round-about ways in preaching about our Heavenly Father and His Son, so the pagan converts to Christ would know the difference from their traditions of Greek gods.

For one of Israel, to whom our Heavenly Father gave His oracles, they will know His Name if they are faithful and stay in His Word, and His Name is not "Yahwah", though that form is close. One has to know the Acrostics our Heavenly Father left in the Hebrew Old Testament manuscripts for His Name. Anything else is nothing but another traditon or fad of men, and their fad servants that have latched onto their doctrines.

Might also consider that just maybe, our Heavenly Father didn't want just anyone having access to His true Name without first going through Him.

I've seen this argument before, the idea that if we don't use His Name in original Hebrew, then He won't hear our prayers. That's a bunch of baloney. A believer knows Who they are praying to, and God knows also! How can I be so sure of that?

Well, there's a little event recorded in Acts 2 on Pentecost when Peter spoke to multitudes of peoples from several different countries that each had their own language. Everyone present heard him speak by The Holy Spirit cloven tongue in their very own dialect of language of birth. That means even the slang in their own languages, and that's the hardest part of any language to really master.

So in other words, The LORD knows HOW we speak and HOW we even hear! And per the Book of Zephaniah, He is going to return us ALL back to speaking the one language that was manifested prior to the tower of Babel event, or at least some pure form of that.
.
 
veteran said:
The King James Bible translators didn't hide God's Name in the New Testament Books, because when the Greek was used the original writers like Apostle Paul had to use the available Greek words for our Heavenly Father. I think that's why Paul went in detailed round-about ways in preaching about our Heavenly Father and His Son, so the pagan converts to Christ would know the difference from their traditions of Greek gods.

For one of Israel, to whom our Heavenly Father gave His oracles, they will know His Name if they are faithful and stay in His Word, and His Name is not "Yahwah", though that form is close. One has to know the Acrostics our Heavenly Father left in the Hebrew Old Testament manuscripts for His Name. Anything else is nothing but another traditon or fad of men, and their fad servants that have latched onto their doctrines.

Might also consider that just maybe, our Heavenly Father didn't want just anyone having access to His true Name without first going through Him.

I've seen this argument before, the idea that if we don't use His Name in original Hebrew, then He won't hear our prayers. That's a bunch of baloney. A believer knows Who they are praying to, and God knows also! How can I be so sure of that?

Well, there's a little event recorded in Acts 2 on Pentecost when Peter spoke to multitudes of peoples from several different countries that each had their own language. Everyone present heard him speak by The Holy Spirit cloven tongue in their very own dialect of language of birth. That means even the slang in their own languages, and that's the hardest part of any language to really master.

So in other words, The LORD knows HOW we speak and HOW we even hear! And per the Book of Zephaniah, He is going to return us ALL back to speaking the one language that was manifested prior to the tower of Babel event, or at least some pure form of that.
.
After killing Hebrew Christians, the Jews would take the New testament scripture written in Hebrew, and carefully cut the name of God out. Then they would place the divine name in a safe place to keep. Following that, they then would burn the remainder of the scrolls in a fire. Rabbi Yose who lived during the second century AD states that, "One cuts out the reference to the Divine Name which are in them [the Christian writings] and stores them away, and the rest burns." One of his characteristic sayings is, "He who proclaimed the coming of the Messiah, and he who hated scholars and their disciples; and that false prophet and those slanderers, will have no part in the future world." According to Bacher this was directed against the Hebrew Christians. And so it is an established fact then, that the disciples of Christ did in fact write the Holy Name of God into the New Testament.
 
nadab said:
This brings up a question: Why did Jesus say that he worshiped the Father along with other Jews at John 4:22, 23 if he is God ?

Because He was a man, too.
He was God come in the flesh...while in the flesh, He worshipped the Father.
 
mdo757 said:
I like this one: 1 Cor 15:28
28 And when all things shall be subdued unto Him, then shall the Son also Himself be subject unto Him That put all things under Him, that God may be all in all. Subject unto who? Unto Yahwah his God, and ours.

Yes, that God may be all in all.

Note...Jesus subdued all things unto HIMSELF. Jesus is our God.
Philippians 3:21 said:
Who shall change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body, according to the working whereby he is able even to subdue all things unto himself.
 
mdo757 said:
Did you know that the term "God head" is an interpretation and not a translation. How come Trinitarians think it's fine to insert words into scripture to prove Trinitariansm as a biblical truth. If all those corruptions were removed then there would be no proof.

It's a shame you don't think God is able to keep His Word safe from the corruptions of men. :shame
 
[Sigh] Yet another "Jesus isn't God" thread and this time it's in the end times section, which I don't quite get.

I need to start saving my posts so that I can just start C & P'ing into these repeat threads.
 
toddm said:
[Sigh] Yet another "Jesus isn't God" thread and this time it's in the end times section, which I don't quite get.

I need to start saving my posts so that I can just start C & P'ing into these repeat threads.
:lol That's actually a fine idea.
 
glorydaz said:
mdo757 said:
I like this one: 1 Cor 15:28
28 And when all things shall be subdued unto Him, then shall the Son also Himself be subject unto Him That put all things under Him, that God may be all in all. Subject unto who? Unto Yahwah his God, and ours.

Yes, that God may be all in all.

Note...Jesus subdued all things unto HIMSELF. Jesus is our God.
Philippians 3:21 said:
Who shall change our vile body, that it may be fashioned like unto his glorious body, according to the working whereby he is able even to subdue all things unto himself.
Not correct. It is Yahwah who does the subduing.
Psalm 110:1
The LORD says to my lord: "Sit at my right hand until I make your enemies a footstool for your feet."
 
glorydaz said:
mdo757 said:
Did you know that the term "God head" is an interpretation and not a translation. How come Trinitarians think it's fine to insert words into scripture to prove Trinitariansm as a biblical truth. If all those corruptions were removed then there would be no proof.

It's a shame you don't think God is able to keep His Word safe from the corruptions of men. :shame
It was prophesied that men would tamper with the word of God.
 
RND said:
mdo757 said:
The name Yahwah was removed by the translators, because they thought people should not know or speak the name of God.
Truth be told 'Yahweh' is simply the pronunciation of YHWH - the Hebrew vocalization of the Tetragrammaton.

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tetragrammaton
Proto Semitic did not use the letter "e" for a vowel. That is why I spell it Yahwah.
 
toddm said:
[Sigh] Yet another "Jesus isn't God" thread and this time it's in the end times section, which I don't quite get.

I need to start saving my posts so that I can just start C & P'ing into these repeat threads.
The word "God head" is not in actual scripture. It is a Trinitarian insertion. Don't you care anything about the truth?
 
mdo757 said:
Proto Semitic did not use the letter "e" for a vowel. That is why I spell it Yahwah.
What proof do you have that the ancient Hebrew Pentateuch was written in Proto Semitic? Does that have any effect on what I wrote regarding YHWH and the Hebrew vocalization of the Tetragrammaton?
 
I do not want to say anything insulting, but you guys need to give more thought about your answers to me.
 
RND said:
mdo757 said:
Proto Semitic did not use the letter "e" for a vowel. That is why I spell it Yahwah.
What proof do you have that the ancient Hebrew Pentateuch was written in Proto Semitic? Does that have any effect on what I wrote regarding YHWH and the Hebrew vocalization of the Tetragrammaton?
I suggest you search the term "Proto Semitic."
 
mdo,

All your posts show is that Jesus is a separate person from the Father, not that He is a separate being - something I'm sure you know Trinitarians affirm.

Are you a modalist? Or is Jesus a "lesser god"?
 
mdo757 said:
I suggest you search the term "Proto Semitic."
I have! That's why I asked the questions I asked!

Here they are again:

What proof do you have that the ancient Hebrew Pentateuch was written in Proto Semitic? Does that have any effect on what I wrote regarding YHWH and the Hebrew vocalization of the Tetragrammaton?
 
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