Jehovah-Rapha
Member
I agree with your point. My question is not referring to the homosexual community.Each person stands before the Great White Throne, all by themselves, and their "works" that are written down in a book will be what Jesus looks at, and He will judge them because of what they did in their lifetime. If they are homosexuals they will be judged individually.
Rom 1:24 Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves:
Romans 1:25 "Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.
1:26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
1:27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
1:28 And even as they did not like to retain God in their knowledge, God gave them over to a reprobate mind, to do those things which are not convenient;
1:29 Being filled with all unrighteousness, fornication, wickedness, covetousness, maliciousness; full of envy, murder, debate, deceit, malignity; whisperers,
1:30 Backbiters, haters of God, despiteful, proud, boasters, inventors of evil things, disobedient to parents,
1:31 Without understanding, covenantbreakers, without natural affection, implacable, unmerciful:
1:32 Who knowing the judgment of God, that they which commit such things are worthy of death, not only do the same, but have pleasure in them that do them."
A lot of Theologians feel the the "death" in verse 32 is aids which will never see a cure.
What I don't understand, is if there is no consequence after (the un-saved) death, in the Great White Throne Judgement over them becoming one with every one they had sexual incounters with.
OK I'll re-phrase the question. Why doesn't the Lord want sexual freedom?
Why the verse "not to connect Him to "UN-convanent relationships" if their is no EXTRA judgement, or more severe judgements. Why (according the our Lord) does He command that we not become one sexually (I am assuming in other ways as well, like spiritually) to others.
Let me make it clear. I have no problems with adultery, fornication, or homosexuality.
These sins do not tempt me.
I am wanting to understand the "root or deeper meaning" of my Lords command.
I ponder this question when i reflect on everyone I've known in my life that were or are now involved in sexual immorality.
Many of whom believed they were Christians, (though there was no evidence),
and others who believe they are Christians now, ( but there is no evidence) and others in my life (atheist).