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How do we reconcile John 6:44 and John 12:32?

OzSpen

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How can we reconcile these two Scriptures?

John 6:44 (NIV) states: 'No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws them, and I will raise them up at the last day'. That's fairly easy to understand. No person will come to Jesus unless experiencing the inner 'drawing' by the Father.

John 12:32 (NIV): 'And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself.’ The NIV footnote indicates being 'lifted up' means 'exalted'. Many commentators consider 'I am lifted up' as a reference to Jesus' crucifixion.

How is it possible for ALL people to be drawn to Jesus? The same Greek word for 'draw' is used in these two verses.

Is it possible to reconcile these two verses without John 12:32 meaning all people are drawn to Jesus and thus a promotion of universalism - everyone will be saved?

Oz
 
How can we reconcile these two Scriptures?

John 6:44 (NIV) states: 'No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws them, and I will raise them up at the last day'. That's fairly easy to understand. No person will come to Jesus unless experiencing the inner 'drawing' by the Father.

John 12:32 (NIV): 'And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself.’ The NIV footnote indicates being 'lifted up' means 'exalted'. Many commentators consider 'I am lifted up' as a reference to Jesus' crucifixion.

How is it possible for ALL people to be drawn to Jesus? The same Greek word for 'draw' is used in these two verses.

Is it possible to reconcile these two verses without John 12:32 meaning all people are drawn to Jesus and thus a promotion of universalism - everyone will be saved?

Oz


Lifted up from the earth prefers to His crucifixion, and you don’t need a commentator to explain this, just read verse 33.

This He said, signifying by what death He would die. John 12:33

John 12:32 doesn’t mean everyone will be saved.



This is the will of the Father who sent Me, that of all He has given Me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up at the last day. And this is the will of Him who sent Me, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in Him may have everlasting life; and I will raise him up at the last day. ”The Jews then complained about Him, because He said, “I am the bread which came down from heaven.” And they said, “Is not this Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? How is it then that He says, ‘I have come down from heaven’?”
Jesus therefore answered and said to them, “Do not murmur among yourselves. No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up at the last day.
John 6:39-44


Key Verse:

  • And this is the will of Him who sent Me, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in Him may have everlasting life; and I will raise him up at the last day.



How is this different from the rest of the New Testament?



JLB
 
Thanks for the information. I did not know that universalism meant that all people go to heaven. I thought it meant that all good people go to heaven like the ones who have never been introduced to Christ.

I used to worry a lot about who goes to heaven and who doesn't. I wanted my whole family there and all the good non-Christians. But my faith has deepened and now I believe that we must surrender to Christ to be saved.

I am not sure what being saved means. Does it mean I will go to heaven? Does it mean I will see loved ones? What does the Bible say about what it is like there?
 
thus a promotion of universalism - everyone will be saved?
that would be taking everything out of context . to many take a set of scriptures and make a doctrine . it does say
John 6:37

“All that the Father giveth me shall come to me; and him that cometh to me I will in no wise cast out.”

the drawing from the spirit is a must. in this time of staying at home. w have kids that comes on the weekends stays with us.. i was talking to on of them about being saved.. she was having hard time understanding. i told her when the time was right she would know . i could have led her in a prayer . but the spirit was not drawing
 
How can we reconcile these two Scriptures?

John 6:44 (NIV) states: 'No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws them, and I will raise them up at the last day'. That's fairly easy to understand. No person will come to Jesus unless experiencing the inner 'drawing' by the Father.

John 12:32 (NIV): 'And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself.’ The NIV footnote indicates being 'lifted up' means 'exalted'. Many commentators consider 'I am lifted up' as a reference to Jesus' crucifixion.

How is it possible for ALL people to be drawn to Jesus? The same Greek word for 'draw' is used in these two verses.

Is it possible to reconcile these two verses without John 12:32 meaning all people are drawn to Jesus and thus a promotion of universalism - everyone will be saved?

Oz
the verse doesn't say draw all PEOPLE - in the original it says ALL - all what? -
 
the verse doesn't say draw all PEOPLE - in the original it says ALL - all what? - all judgement? - all punishment?

Jesus did take on all punishment and all judgement as when the bronze snake on the pole in the desert took away all death

here is an article on the issue:


here is the greek on the verse:


Truthfrees,

Linking to a 'Christian Universalist Forum' (oxymoron) is very dangerous as a universalist is one who believes all people will be saved.

To make the verse read 'all judgement' also adds to the text.

Oz
 
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the verse doesn't say draw all PEOPLE - in the original it says ALL - all what? - all judgement? - all punishment?

Jesus did take on all punishment and all judgement as when the bronze snake on the pole in the desert took away all death

here is an article on the issue:


here is the greek on the verse:


Truthfrees,

So, what does 'will draw all' in John 12:32 mean?

Oz
 
Truthfrees,

So, what does 'will draw all' in John 12:32 mean?

Oz

When you ask people this question and they answer it, and ask you a question, and you ignore their question to you, why do you expect others to dialog with you?

Here is my answer to your question —


Lifted up from the earth refers to His crucifixion, and you don’t need a commentator to explain this, just read verse 33.

This He said, signifying by what death He would die. John 12:33

John 12:32 doesn’t mean everyone will be saved.



This is the will of the Father who sent Me, that of all He has given Me I should lose nothing, but should raise it up at the last day. And this is the will of Him who sent Me, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in Him may have everlasting life; and I will raise him up at the last day. ”The Jews then complained about Him, because He said, “I am the bread which came down from heaven.” And they said, “Is not this Jesus, the son of Joseph, whose father and mother we know? How is it then that He says, ‘I have come down from heaven’?”
Jesus therefore answered and said to them, “Do not murmur among yourselves. No one can come to Me unless the Father who sent Me draws him; and I will raise him up at the last day.
John 6:39-44


Key Verse:

  • And this is the will of Him who sent Me, that everyone who sees the Son and believes in Him may have everlasting life; and I will raise him up at the last day.



How is this different from the rest of the New Testament?



JLB
 
Truthfrees,

So, what does 'will draw all' in John 12:32 mean?

Oz

And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all peoples to Myself.” This He said, signifying by what death He would die.
John 12:32-33


It means if He is crucified for the sins of the world, He will draw all peoples, meaning not just Jews, but Gentiles as well to Himself.

All people’s refers to every tribe, tongue and nation.

His disciples were Jewish, and rejected Gentiles as heathen;
unclean.


Jesus is broadening their worldview.


Draw doesn’t mean that someone is automatically saved and can never be lost.



JLB
 
When you ask people this question and they answer it, and ask you a question, and you ignore their question to you, why do you expect others to dialog with you?
JLB

There is no need to be antagonistic like this. :pepsican
 
Truthfrees,

So, what does 'will draw all' in John 12:32 mean?

Oz
exactly - what does it mean?

it isn't spelled out clearly - but one thing for sure it does not say PEOPLE - why do we make scripture say something it doesn't clearly say?

so take all scripture together and see what makes the most sense
 
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Truthfrees,

Linking to a 'Christian Universalist Forum' (oxymoron) is very dangerous as a universalist is one who believes all people will be saved.

To make the verse read 'all judgement' also adds to the text.

Oz
universalism is a wrong theology

i'm not making the verse read anything

simply saying it does not say "all PEOPLE" in the original greek - it says draw ALL

so we are all guessing - and maybe we should all stop
 
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what did Jesus draw to Himself?

it isn't spelled out clearly - but one thing for sure it does not say PEOPLE - why do we make scripture say something it doesn't clearly say?

so what did Jesus draw to Himself?

He said all peoples...


And I, if I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all peoples to Myself.” This He said, signifying by what death He would die.
John 12:32-33


It means if He is crucified for the sins of the world, He will draw all peoples, meaning not just Jews, but Gentiles as well to Himself.

All people’s refers to every tribe, tongue and nation.

His disciples were Jewish, and rejected Gentiles as heathen;
unclean.


Jesus is broadening their worldview.


Draw doesn’t mean that someone is automatically saved and can never be lost.



JLB
 
How can we reconcile these two Scriptures?

John 6:44 (NIV) states: 'No one can come to me unless the Father who sent me draws them, and I will raise them up at the last day'. That's fairly easy to understand. No person will come to Jesus unless experiencing the inner 'drawing' by the Father.

John 12:32 (NIV): 'And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself.’ The NIV footnote indicates being 'lifted up' means 'exalted'. Many commentators consider 'I am lifted up' as a reference to Jesus' crucifixion.

How is it possible for ALL people to be drawn to Jesus? The same Greek word for 'draw' is used in these two verses.

Is it possible to reconcile these two verses without John 12:32 meaning all people are drawn to Jesus and thus a promotion of universalism - everyone will be saved?

Oz
Yes, it's easy to reconcile them. John 6:44 refers to those Jews to which Jesus spoke. He said that He was only sent to the Israel. John 12:32 is a reference to Him drawing all of mankind after the crucifixion.
 
the verse doesn't say draw all PEOPLE - in the original it says ALL - all what? - all judgement? - all punishment?

Jesus did take on all punishment and all judgement as when the bronze snake on the pole in the desert took away all death

here is an article on the issue:


here is the greek on the verse:

Read the link.
Which would be the original manuscript?
HOW would one know it's the ORIGINAL manuscript?

There's no way to know this.

Here's the greek word:
πάντας

Perhaps OzSpen could tell us what it means...
As far as I can determine, it means: ALL THOSE THAT, (meaning persons.)
 
exactly - what does it mean?

what did Jesus draw to Himself?

it isn't spelled out clearly - but one thing for sure it does not say PEOPLE - why do we make scripture say something it doesn't clearly say?

so what did Jesus draw to Himself?

maybe our sins? - 2 Corinthians 5:21

maybe our punishment? - Romans 3:21-22

maybe people - but what scripture do we have that Jesus draws people to Himself? - we don't - we have scripture that says the FATHER draws people to Jesus - John 6:44

so take all scripture together and see what makes the most sense

Truthfrees,

I don't consider we can circumvent 'all people' as a translation of 'all' in John 12:32 as the context reveals. See these examples (from NASB):
  • v. 25, 'He who loves his life';
  • v. 25, 'he who hates his life';
  • v. 26, 'If anyone serves Me, he must follow Me';
  • v. 26, 'where I am, there My servant will be also';
  • v. 29, 'So the crowd of people who stood by and heard it were saying that it had thundered';
  • v. 29, 'others were saying, “An angel has spoken to Him.”'
  • v. 30, 'This voice has not come for My sake, but for your sakes';
  • v. 32, 'will draw all men to Myself';
  • v. 34, 'The crowd then answered Him. “We have heard out of the Law that the Christ is to remain forever; and how can You say, ‘The Son of Man must be lifted up’?"
  • v. 36, 'These things Jesus spoke, and He went away and hid Himself from them';
  • v. 37, 'But though He had performed so many signs before them, yet they were not believing in Him'.
What I have put in bold in the context of John 12:32 demonstrates Jesus was addressing the people, the crowd, anyone, others, etc. We can't get around 'all' of John 12:32 meaning 'all people'. The issue surrounds the meaning of helkuō (I draw).

I was alerted to this example in Richard Trench’s Synonyms of the New Testament (1880/1953:72-74).

There are two Greek words, of theological importance, that show the difference between draw and drag. They are surein and helkuein. Both of these are in the infinitive form. Surein is most often translated as ‘to drag’ and helkuein (to draw).

Surein includes the notion of violence (see Acts 8:3; 14:19; 17:6). However, helkuein does not have violence as its primary meaning, although it is seen in Acts 16:9; 21:30 and James 2:6.

Only by keeping in mind the difference which thus exists between these, can we vindicate from erroneous interpretation two doctrinally important passages in the Gospel of St. John (Trench 1880/1953:72).

He refers to John 12:32 and asks, ‘How does a crucified, and thus an exalted Saviour draw all men unto Him? Not by force, for the will is incapable of force, but by the divine attractions of his love’. In John 6:44, helkuein rejects being ‘dragged to God’ as a machine but it relates to ‘potent allurements’ or attractiveness of love by the Father for the son.

The Septuagint of Jeremiah 31:3 (NIV) uses the word, ‘The Lord appeared to us in the past, saying: “I have loved you with an everlasting love; I have drawn you with unfailing kindness”’.
Helkuein is predominantly the sense of drawing to a certain point. In surein, merely of dragging after one … likening a man to a fish already hooked and dragged through the water. [See Isa 3:16], which is forcibly dragged along with no will of its own; a dead body (Trench 1880/1953:73).
Compare John 21:6, 8, and11 where helkuein is used for ‘a drawing of the net to a certain point; by the disciples to themselves in the ship, by Peter to himself upon the shore.

However, at verse 8, helkeuein is taken over by surein, ‘dragging the net full of fish’ (ESV).

Oz

Bibliography

Trench, R C 1880/1953. Synonyms of the New Testament. London. Digitized by Ted Hildebrandt, Gordon College, Wenham, MA March 2006. Available at: https://faculty.gordon.edu/hu/bi/ted_hildebrandt/new_testament_greek/text/trench-synonyms.pdf (Accessed 27 March 2020).
 
Read the link.
Which would be the original manuscript?
HOW would one know it's the ORIGINAL manuscript?

There's no way to know this.

Here's the greek word:
πάντας

Perhaps OzSpen could tell us what it means...
As far as I can determine, it means: ALL THOSE THAT, (meaning persons.)

wondering,

The parsing of pantas is masculine (gender), accusative (case) and plural number of the adjective, pas. Because it is an adjective, it generally needs a modifying noun that agrees with the gender of the adjective. Therefore, this has led to John 12:32 being accurately translated as 'all men/people' because anthropos is a masculine noun to agree with the masculine adjective.

However, as I've indicated in my post #17 above, there is plenty of evidence in the surrounding context of John 12:32 to indicate Jesus was speaking to people. There is no need to go searching for another noun to accompany pantas because the context clears that up.

The issue now relates to how we translate the verb helkuō (I draw).

Oz
 
universalism is a wrong theology

i'm not making the verse read anything

simply saying it does not say "all PEOPLE" in the original greek - it says draw ALL

so we are all guessing - and maybe we should all stop

I hope you've read my reply to you at #17 where I hope to have cleared it up. 'All' is an adjective in the Greek that requires a noun to modify. The translators have rightly made that 'man/people' as the context demonstrates that.

I'm not guessing. I'm giving you what the Greek says about pantas.

Now the issue is with the verb, helkuō. Does it mean an internal drawing or a dragging (irresistible grace) into the kingdom?

Oz
 
Read the link.
Which would be the original manuscript?
HOW would one know it's the ORIGINAL manuscript?

There's no way to know this.

Here's the greek word:
πάντας

Perhaps OzSpen could tell us what it means...
As far as I can determine, it means: ALL THOSE THAT, (meaning persons.)
the greek does not say draw all men unto

the greek says draw all unto

to add a word that isn't there is not right imo

in the nkjv and i think in the nasv when a word has been added by the translators that is not in the original it is in italics - this is to make clear which words are God's words and which words are translator's words

i find it best for myself to read only the words that were there BEFORE the translators got to adding what they thought was best

if that is not best for you that is ok with me

i find it very illuminating to read only what God said and not be swayed by what translators added
 
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