Christian Forums

This is a sample guest message. Register a free account today to become a member! Once signed in, you'll be able to participate on this site by adding your own topics and posts, as well as connect with other members through your own private inbox!

How does Jesus Feel About Remarrige

Elijah_101 wrote:Jesus said
Jesus ALSO said this....

(Mat 5:42 KJV) Give to him that asketh thee, and from him that would borrow of thee turn not thou away.
(Luk 6:30 KJV) Give to every man that asketh of thee; and of him that taketh away thy goods ask them not again.

I am ASKING you for $1000 Elijah.
Lets see if you actually OBEY the Lords instruction where it is applied to YOUR life as you seemingly insist that OTHERS obey what you claim Jesus said and meant.
 
follower of Christ said:
Elijah_101 wrote:Jesus said
Jesus ALSO said this....

[quote:3c40p2tv] (Mat 5:42 KJV) Give to him that asketh thee, and from him that would borrow of thee turn not thou away.
(Luk 6:30 KJV) Give to every man that asketh of thee; and of him that taketh away thy goods ask them not again.

I am ASKING you for $1000 Elijah.
Lets see if you actually OBEY the Lords instruction where it is applied to YOUR life as you seemingly insist that OTHERS obey what you claim Jesus said and meant.[/quote:3c40p2tv]

Why tempt ye me,hypocrite?

If there come any unto you, and bring not this doctrine, receive him not into your house, neither bid him God speed: 11 For he that biddeth him God speed is partaker of his evil deeds.

You Preach another gospel, if I gave you any thing, I would be Partakers of you....

And through covetousness shall they with feigned words make merchandise of you: whose judgment now of a long time lingereth not, and their damnation slumbereth not.
2 Peter 2:1-3 (KJV)

I marvel that ye are so soon removed from him that called you into the grace of Christ unto another gospel:  Which is not another; but there be some that trouble you, and would pervert the gospel of Christ.

 But though we, or an angel from heaven, preach any other gospel unto you than that which we have preached unto you, let him be accursed.

 As we said before, so say I now again, If any man preach any other gospel unto you than that ye have received, let him be accursed. 2 John 1:10-11

Now I beseech you, brethren, mark them which cause divisions and offences contrary to the doctrine which ye have learned; and avoid them.

For they that are such serve not our Lord Jesus Christ, but their own belly; and by good words and fair speeches deceive the hearts of the simple. Romans 16:17-18
 
.


So we see that elijah-101 expects OTHERS to obey what HE claims is truth, but then elijah_101 REFUSES to obey the CLEAR scriptures himself

Precisely as we expected !

\You Preach another gospel
, if I gave you any thing, I would be Partakers of you....
Jesus offered NO exceptions or conditions, poster...but said give to EVERY man who asks.
You have to make up conditions NOT in the texts, thus showing your error is WORSE than you claim ours is...also proving that you DO believe that a CLEAR scripture isnt always meant as absolute but IS to be harmonized with the REST of scripture....precisely as you are attempting to do here yourself.
.
 
LostLamb said:
My thoughts on the topic and passages summed up:

Divorce be it for reason of one spouse being unfaithful or not, leads to one or both parties being adulters. Especially if one or both remarry to someone else.

The only time remarriage is okay and not resulting in adultery is when the spouse of the person has passed on.

Just my thoughts.....

I believe this pretty much 'sums up' what Paidon offered in detail. When someone stands before God and SWEARS to remain with another ALL THEIR LIVES, this is EXACTLY what they have SWORN. We have NEVER been offered PERMISSION to break such an oath.

And when we consider the words of Christ concerning 'forgiveness', that offers even MORE reason to FORGIVE them that we are bound to rather than 'separating' from them.

Blessings,

MEC
 
Imagican said:
I believe this pretty much 'sums up' what Paidon offered in detail. When someone stands before God and SWEARS to remain with another ALL THEIR LIVES, this is EXACTLY what they have SWORN. We have NEVER been offered PERMISSION to break such an oath.
Actually we have been given just that. Some fallacies simply misunderstand 'commits adultery' and run with it.
I guess some folks expect married persons to honor 'till death' but then dont get bunched up at all when the rest of the vows are trashed by one spouse or the other.
Seems that some only hold SOME parts of the marriage vows as being worthy of honoring.

And when we consider the words of Christ concerning 'forgiveness', that offers even MORE reason to FORGIVE them that we are bound to rather than 'separating' from them.

Blessings,

MEC
Now if it were only that simple ...

Its easy to pretend like 'forgivess=remaining in the marriage" when its not us having to endure the atrocities....

"My husband cut off my ears and nose and broke my teeth"
http://studies.assembly-ministries.org/ ... f=48&t=192
file.php


Contrary to unpopular belief 'forgiveness' does not equal 'stupidity'....
We can forgive the adulterer and the abuser without being dumb enough to remain in the situation.



.
 
Now, I ask this: Do you BELIEVE that she has suffered AS Christ? For we were TOLD that to follow HIM would BE to OFTEN be TREATED as HE WAS TREATED. Let's SEE, although what has happened to her is ATROCIOUS, I believe that it PALLS in comparison with suffering the SINS of the world unto DEATH.

And you are most likely dealing with a people that have LITTLE in common with GOD OR HIS SON. So, how to tell one to deal with the likes of those that LIVE in such a manner, I haven't a clue. But we have been TOLD to be CONTENT with WHATEVER situation we find ourselves. Whether free or slave, whether persecuted or treated poorly.

Now, DO you have the GUTS or Spirit to LIVE how we have been COMMANDED to live, or do you believe that our PERSONAL comfort or pleasure is MORE important than that?

While I am WELL AWARE of how EASY it is to live FOR this world, we, (those that have chosen or BEEN chosen), are to LIVE OUTSIDE of it. That does NOT MEAN that we are able to INSULATE ourselves from that which the world will THROW AT US, it simply means that we are to DEAL with it in a DIFFERENT manner than the world WOULD.

And don't confuse me with someone that has NO IDEA of what he speaks. I have NO IDEA how I would handle a situation where I would be required to 'lay down MY life for another', (even an ENEMY). I can ONLY hope that God would grant me the STRENGTH to endure and follow as commanded. I don't believe that we CAN KNOW until we actually FACE such a situation. Words become CHEAP when we are forced to face our biggest fears. For even Peter, when faced with the possibility of 'guilt through association', denied that he even KNEW Christ.

So, I believe what we discuss here is NOT what we would necessarily DO or WHO we ARE so much as what we are SUPPOSE to do and be. For HOW else are we to BECOME what we are suppose to without FIRST acknowledging the truth.

So, I believe that God and Christ were BOTH aware of the tragic events that take place on this planet when they spoke to us concerning HOW WE are to practice our beliefs. Whether WE can 'live up to them' is the question. And it basically boils down to FAITH. Do we HAVE the faith to persevere? Or do we simply have JUST the amount of faith it takes to PRETEND to BELIEVE?

Christ was clear in His discussion on divorce. Now, is divorce or adultery ENOUGH for one to LOOSE one's Salvation? I am NOT the judge of these 'things'. But the question is 'how does Jesus FEEL about remarriage'. And ONCE one has SWORN such an oath as marriage, is it that hard to understand that ONCE one is MARRIED and has SWORN before God and their neighbors to 'stay together until DEATH', we are BOUND to such promise? And even if the LAWS of men ALLOW for a LEGAL divorce, so far as God and Christ are concerned, what was brought together is LOVE cannot be UNDONE in TRUTH. So, that would make one who divorces guilty of adultery to remarry. Like it or NOT, we have the words of Christ Himself stating that it was THROUGH the HARDNESS of the hearts of those durring the time of Moses that God allowed divorce for certain circumstances. But that was NOT God's DESIRE, it was the desire of those that BEGGED for it. For, "What God hath joined together, let NO MAN put assunder".

Blessings,

MEC
 
How about READING the thread and seeing that your views have been refuted already rather than cause us to have to REPEAT everything thats already been said here ?

Imagican said:
Now, I ask this: Do you BELIEVE that she has suffered AS Christ?
Im sorry, where was that verse again about a woman 'suffering as Christ' at the hands of her COVENANT husband ?
Oh thats right, its not in there.
For we were TOLD that to follow HIM would BE to OFTEN be TREATED as HE WAS TREATED
BY THE WORLD chap....a world we have NO covenant with....where there are NO rules in place....NOT in a COVENANT marriage where VERY clear rules are in place.
Let's SEE, although what has happened to her is ATROCIOUS, I believe that it PALLS in comparison with suffering the SINS of the world unto DEATH.
Its astounding how easily you dismiss and downplay what happened to the dear young woman. You really expose your heart for the human individual and your blatant idolatry of marriage and importance of the word over the person..utterly disgusting.
The church will suffer at the hands of unbelievers that we have NO covenant with....NO woman is called to suffer at the hand of her husband.

And you are most likely dealing with a people that have LITTLE in common with GOD OR HIS SON. So, how to tell one to deal with the likes of those that LIVE in such a manner, I haven't a clue. But we have been TOLD to be CONTENT with WHATEVER situation we find ourselves. Whether free or slave, whether persecuted or treated poorly.
Your passage is entirely out of context. It speaks simply of being content where we are. It doesnt tell a a married woman to stay in an adulterous or abusive marriage.
Now, DO you have the GUTS or Spirit to LIVE how we have been COMMANDED to live, or do you believe that our PERSONAL comfort or pleasure is MORE important than that?
Do you have the guts to actually UNDERSTAND Gods covenant of marriage ?
Its sad that persons such as yourself twist and pervert Gods law, completely unable to rightly divide it, so that you come up with trash doctrines like this that would keep a woman in danger where GOD would not have her remain.
While I am WELL AWARE of how EASY it is to live FOR this world, we, (those that have chosen or BEEN chosen), are to LIVE OUTSIDE of it. That does NOT MEAN that we are able to INSULATE ourselves from that which the world will THROW AT US, it simply means that we are to DEAL with it in a DIFFERENT manner than the world WOULD.
We have no covenant with 'this world' chap.
Marriage IS a covenant and there are RULES for that covenant...including how we are to treat our spouse.

And don't confuse me with someone that has NO IDEA of what he speaks. I have NO IDEA how I would handle a situation where I would be required to 'lay down MY life for another', (even an ENEMY). I can ONLY hope that God would grant me the STRENGTH to endure and follow as commanded. I don't believe that we CAN KNOW until we actually FACE such a situation. Words become CHEAP when we are forced to face our biggest fears. For even Peter, when faced with the possibility of 'guilt through association', denied that he even KNEW Christ.
PUHlease.
Im not dumb enough to even believe you if you claimed youd stay in a marriage with the abuse that woman suffered. Dont even waste your time trying such an absurd assertion. NO one would believe it.
And no one could justly accuse you WHEN you did divorce for that sort of abuse as NO spouse is called to remain in that environment.

You are intentionally twisting scriptures that talk about our relationship with a godless world with which we have NO covenant with those that deal with Gods marriage covenant where there are RULES in place.

So, I believe that God and Christ were BOTH aware of the tragic events that take place on this planet when they spoke to us concerning HOW WE are to practice our beliefs. Whether WE can 'live up to them' is the question. And it basically boils down to FAITH. Do we HAVE the faith to persevere? Or do we simply have JUST the amount of faith it takes to PRETEND to BELIEVE?
You are mixing all sorts of irrelevance into this discussion that has no bearing on marriage whatsoever.
Jesus Christ gave EXCEPTION where divorce is concerned thus PROVING that marriage is conditional.
Paul also gave concession whereby a marriage can be put asunder, so again it IS a conditional covenant...your approval or agreement isnt required in the matter...
Christ was clear in His discussion on divorce.
YOure right, He was. Marriage is condtional. Now lets see if how badly you can twist His intent.
Now, is divorce or adultery ENOUGH for one to LOOSE one's Salvation?
Adultery is a sin. Divorce isnt when it is for a just cause. Learn the difference.
I am NOT the judge of these 'things'.
The only accurate point in your entire post
But the question is 'how does Jesus FEEL about remarriage'.
Bogus nonsense.
God said He hates putting away, not remarriage, chap.
And ONCE one has SWORN such an oath as marriage, is it that hard to understand that ONCE one is MARRIED and has SWORN before God and their neighbors to 'stay together until DEATH', we are BOUND to such promise?
Sorry chap but Jesus, Paul and Moses ALL THREE show that marriage CAN be "put asunder" before the death of the spouse.
READERS SEE->Click->>> "Bound by Law"

The only thing hard to understand is how those who preach false doctrines can sleep at night.
And even if the LAWS of men ALLOW for a LEGAL divorce, so far as God and Christ are concerned, what was brought together is LOVE cannot be UNDONE in TRUTH.
Complete nonsense.
Paul, Jesus and Moses all three PROVE that man CAN 'undo' the marriage covenant.

So, that would make one who divorces guilty of adultery to remarry.
Sorry chap, but you are mistaken. Jesus Himself gave EXCEPTION for divorce and remarriage. Get used to that fact.
Like it or NOT, we have the words of Christ Himself stating that it was THROUGH the HARDNESS of the hearts of those durring the time of Moses that God allowed divorce for certain circumstances.
Jesus said that divorce 'for EVERY cause'...ie for no just reason....to remarry is adultery.
He also gave exception showing that marriage is a conditional covenant, Im sorry to say.
But that was NOT God's DESIRE, it was the desire of those that BEGGED for it. For, "What God hath joined together, let NO MAN put assunder".
Very clearly you have not UNDERSTOOD all the of the facts, poster. Paul shows us that man CAN put asunder.

"Let not man Put Asunder" vs "let the unbeliever depart"
Jesus versus Paul ?

By WmTipton


Assertions/Conclusions of this Article

Here we will show that not only can one put asunder a marriage (that its possible), but Paul even gives instruction to do just that in certain cases. These seemingly different statements ("Let not man Put Asunder" vs "let the unbeliever depart")are actually about the same exact thing...putting asunder/Chorizo...as proven very conclusively by the greek.


Supporting Evidence

1.0
There is an errant teaching out there that claims that when Jesus said 'let not man put asunder' regarding marriage, that He 'meant' man CANNOT put asunder.
L: “When God joins two together, they are now ONE. What GOD joins, man CANNOT separateâ€Â
What we will show briefly in this article that there IS an occurance in scripture where it is shown absolutely that man can indeed 'put asunder' what God has joined together.
See 'put asunder' in each of these passages?
So then, they are no longer two but one flesh. Therefore what God has joined together, let not man separate(G5563-CHORIZO)."
(Mat 19:6 EMTV)

(Mar 10:9) 'and the two shall become one flesh'; so then they are no longer two, but one flesh. Therefore what God has united together, let not man separate(G5563-CHORIZO)."
(Mar 10:8-9 EMTV)
Bear in mind that, in the context these are in, Jesus and the pharisees are discussing putting away of a wife there in BOTH of those passages. The context of 'put asunder' is putting away of a marriage/wife, nothing less.
Jesus is CLEARLY discussing not putting asunder of this 'one flesh' that is being spoken of there.

The word is (G5563)chorizo and it only appears a few times in scripture.
G5563
ÇÉÃÂίζÉ
chÃ…ÂrizÃ…Â
Thayer Definition:
1) to separate, divide, part, put asunder, to separate one’s self from, to depart
1a) to leave a husband or wife
1a) of divorce
1b) to depart, go away
That word 'put asunder' is the EXACT same word for "depart" in 1 cor 7:11
(1Co 7:11) But and if she depart(G5563), let her remain unmarried, or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife.
...in other words, Paul has just said this woman has done the exact thing that some claim that Jesus said men CANNOT do....'put asunder'.

Notice Paul makes no claim that she 'cannot' put asunder (depart), but clearly presents that IF she DOES do so, then this is the situation....she is to remain "agamos" (literally "UNmarried").
*IF* putting asunder were IMPOSSIBLE for man to do...then why doesnt Paul REstate (*IF* that were Jesus actual meaning) this fact ?
WHY does he simply say *IF* she puts asunder then ...... ?
*IF* no man can put asunder, then Paul makes absolutely no sense here whatsoever. He should have simply stated that it was impossible to do so.
The word in question pretty much just means to "place room between", "depart" or to "separate"...its not some magical phrase that Jesus used to make a marriage bond unbreakable...

What I find striking is that Paul could have used a number of other choices in demonstrating that this woman had left her husband...but chose the one word that was used in rendering Jesus' words about putting asunder.
Was it coincedence or intentional? Was Paul literally reaching out and using the one word that would make it clear that putting asunder IS indeed possible?
We wont know until that day, for sure...but we do know now that regardless of what some say, that Paul has shown that man CAN 'put asunder'....that is factual.
Certainly a call to reconcile is made to the believers...but this doesnt negate what is clearly presented in Gods word....man CAN indeed put asunder (separate) by Pauls own words.


2.0
Now that its been established that man can indeed ‘put asunder’ (chorizo) a marriage, we move on to something even more astounding. Clear instruction for the believer to actually allow the unbelieving spouse to ‘put asunder’ the marriage.

Heres a very remarkable passage that blows L’s statement above, that man CANNOT separate right out of the water. And not only that, it is our very own Paul giving INSTRUCTION for this believer to let it be so.
1Co 7:15 KJV But if the unbelieving depart, let him depart. A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace.
Remember “chorizoâ€ÂG5563 our word from above ? Can you guess what greek word ‘depart’ there is rendered from ?
You got it...the very same ‘chorizo’ (put asunder from Jesus’ statement ‘let not man put asunderâ€Â) is right there in Paul own instruction to let the unbeliever do.

So we not only see absolute proof that man CAN put asunder a marriage, but we now have Paul even telling the believer to let the unbeliever do so !
This hardly sounds like a ‘cannot’ situation to me.

Now, of course this is not our Lords desire for marriage that it would ever have to be ended, but clearly He had enought forsight to show Paul to let the believer do EXACTLY what He Himself had told man not to do.

Why?
Because Jesus knows that no matter what we do as believers, there will always be unbelieving spouses who will not honor the covenant of marriage.


3.0

As we can see here in this passage, the believing wife who has departed (chorizo) her believing husband is considered 'agamos'.....'unmarried'.

(1Co 7:10 KJV) And unto the married I command, yet not I, but the Lord, Let not the wife depart(chorizo)from her husband:
(1Co 7:11 KJV) But and if she depart(chorizo), let her remain unmarried(agamos), or be reconciled to her husband: and let not the husband put away his wife.


Logically carrying this 'agamos' over to this passage where this unbeliever also has departed the marriage its quite easy to conclude that this person would also be deemed as 'agamos' (unmarried)
(1Co 7:15 KJV) But if the unbelieving depart(chorizo), , let him depart(chorizo), . A brother or a sister is not under bondage in such cases: but God hath called us to peace.

in the former case where both are believers there is commandment to remain UNmarried or reconcile.
In the latter case tho, where one is unequally yoked, Paul clearly states that he is speaking, not the Lord, in this matter.
To these Paul gives concession not given to those who are equally yoked with another believer.
"BUT to the REST"....to these who are unequally yoked, Paul says quite plainly that they are not in bondage to that union where it has been put asunder.

4.0
Another point of interest is in verse 7:11 where it says 'let her remain unmarried or reconcile to her husband" the actual greek means 'let her remain unmarried or to the man let her be being conciliated"
It is often pushed that the use of 'her husband' there means that she is still married to the man, but that is not proven from the actual Greek at all. The greek word for 'man' is also used for 'husband'.
Paul used 'agamos' to describe this woman for a reason.
 
Imagican.
yes or no....are you claiming that the woman in the linked article SHOULD stay in the marriage to the man who did this to her and that she should not divorce.
Its an easy question to answer....yes or no.

Your answer will reveal for us just what you worship, God or marriage, and how expendable you consider human beings to be.

"My husband cut off my ears and nose and broke my teeth"
http://studies.assembly-ministries.org/ ... f=48&t=192
file.php





Does the bible permit putting away a spouse for abuse?
By WmTipton


Actually, it does seem to give grounds for 'putting away' for things like abuse, ect.
This is the passage in question;
But to the rest I say, not the Lord, if any brother has an unbelieving wife, and she consents to live with him, let him not leave her. And a woman who has an unbelieving husband, and he consents to live with her, let her not leave him. For the unbelieving husband has been sanctified by the wife, and the unbelieving wife has been sanctified by the husband; else, then, your children are unclean, but now they are holy. But if the unbelieving one separates, let them be separated; the brother or the sister is not in bondage in such matters; but God has called us in peace. For what do you know, wife, whether you will save the husband? Or what do you know, husband, whether you will save the wife?
(1Co 7:12-16)
The passage and the context of it was an answer to the Corinthians (See 7:1 "But concerning what you wrote to me") about being able to leave if they were saved and the spouse was not.
They felt that they were 'defiled' in being with this person in the marriage based on other teachings about 'touching no unclean thing' and related passages.
This is why Paul tells them that their children are clean and that their spouse is 'sanctified' (not in a SAVED sense, but just to ease their minds so they didnt divorce) by the saved spouse (1Co 7:14).
These believers were assuming they could just up and leave their existing marriages if they became saved and their spouse had not.
Paul is only showing there that they are not to leave if the unsaved spouse is happy to remain with them in the marriage...dont just divorce them because they are unsaved...we may be instrumental in bringing them to salvation.
But Pauls statement IS conditional. If the unbelieving spouse is abusive we DO have right to leave that marriage...ie 'divorce'...which is what LEAVING the marriage is...we would be in the very same 'agamos' state that the woman in 1 Cor 7:10-11 would be...UNmarried.

But to the rest speak I, not the Lord: If any brother hath a wife that believeth not, and she be pleased to dwell with him, let him not put her away.
And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him.
(1Co 7:12-13)
The wording there clearly shows that if she is 'pleased' then let him not put her away.
This statement is conditional.
"if"
G1487
ei i
a primary particle of conditionality;
if, whether, that, etc.:--forasmuch as, if, that, (al-)though, whether. Often
used in connection or composition with other particles, especially as in
G1489, G1490, G1499, G1508, G1509, G1512, G1513, G1536, G1537. See
also G1437.
It doesnt not simply state 'let him not put her away' but adds the condition of being 'pleased' to his not putting her away.
If this were an absolute statement, that he not put her away then it should be stated as such, but its not. A condition is very apparent in the actual text.


So what does this word 'pleased' mean?
G4909
1) to be pleased together with, to approve together (with others)
2) to be pleased at the same time with, consent, agree to
2a) to applaud
the word clearly shows a mutually pleasant experience.
She is pleased along with him...at the same time....'together'.
If one spouse is being beaten, they would hardly be "pleased together with" the person who is beating them....so why does Paul show the condition of mutual pleasing if there is no condition at all ?

In taking the actual greek into account, we clearly see a condition added to Pauls stating that this man not 'put away' his wife. The condition being that the marriage is pleasing mutually... the greek does not show a one sided thing at all.
Paul then shows the same thing in reverse for the believing wife in this situation....
And the woman which hath an husband that believeth not, and if he be pleased to dwell with her, let her not leave him.
(1Co 7:13)
"leave him" there is the same as 'put away' in the previous verse.

G863
aphie?mi
Thayer Definition:
1) to send away
1a) to bid going away or depart
1a1) of a husband divorcing his wife
1b) to send forth, yield up, to expire
1c) to let go, let alone, let be
1c1) to disregard
1c2) to leave, not to discuss now, (a topic)
1c2a) of teachers, writers and speakers
1c3) to omit, neglect
1d) to let go, give up a debt, forgive, to remit
1e) to give up, keep no longer
2) to permit, allow, not to hinder, to give up a thing to a person
3) to leave, go way from one
3a) in order to go to another place
3b) to depart from any one
3c) to depart from one and leave him to himself so that all mutual claims are abandoned
3d) to desert wrongfully
3e) to go away leaving something behind
3f) to leave one by not taking him as a companion
3g) to leave on dying, leave behind one
3h) to leave so that what is left may remain, leave remaining
3i) abandon, leave destitute
The context of 'divorce' as a whole in scripture is either the casting out of a spouse or the leaving of a marriage with the intent of 'putting away' that marriage (altho there are some who try to pretend the two are not the same intent)

For a bit of proof that this is consistently the case, we jump back up to verse 7:11 and see that this woman who has departed her marriage is deemed 'unmarried' by Paul....Agamos/single/unwed/ARAMOC
G22
agamos
Thayer Definition:
1) unmarried, unwedded, single
I think the greek makes it very clear that in a situation where a believer is married to an unbeliever who is abusing them that the condition above that Paul presents does give 'grounds' for divorcing the spouse (leaving the marriage)

Pauls condition of if it is "pleased" (meaning mutually) is the 'grounds' for putting away this spouse if they are abusing and its not pleasing.
The "leaving" of the believer would cause them to be "agamos" or unwed/single/unmarried according to Paul thus showing that they are quite divorced when they left with that intent.

In a case of two believers tho, there is a call to reconcile or remain unmarried.
Of course, some folks move on because they no longer wish to be abused and it is very easily argued that if a man can continually and repeatedly batter his wife then he is not showing evidence of actually being a believer/follower of Christ based on the fact that CHRIST shows that we will know men by their fruits.

Those in Corinth were putting away a spouse when they became born again, even if the marriage was otherwise fine.
Paul tells them in this passage to not end their marriages simply because they found Christ and their spouse had not.
If the marriage is ok otherwise, if it is ‘pleased’...then do not put away this spouse but stay with them because the believers influence might be used to bring salvation to this person.

The conditional statement made by Paul clearly shows that there might be a situation whereby the believer may put away this spouse.
If the marriage is abusive it is hardly mutually ‘pleased’ and as such the condition is not being met as presented by Paul.

Regardless of what some teach, there ARE conditions whereby divorce is permissible and as such is not ‘sin’ for the one carrying the divorce out. Just as we know the Lord God did not ‘sin’ against an adulterous Israel when He gave her a bill of divorce.
 
follower of Christ said:
A little background on divorce.
By WmTipton


Putting away a wife had been going on with the Hebrews for quite some time in the desert there during the times of Exodus, Leviticus and Deuteronomy. This putting away was being done by very hardhearted Hebrews, remember, this is the same group of people who had made the golden calf to worship it. Many Hebrews had little concern for God or His statutes.
One symptom of this hardheartedness, among others, was a complete lack of regard for Gods union of marriage. These were casting aside their wives for no reason , which Moses had to permit or else risk having this monstrous men literally torment or kill their wives.

If you break open your bibles to Leviticus 21, you will see that neither the priests, nor the high priest, could marry a woman who was put away ('divorced') from her husband. The high priest couldn’t even take widow . They were to marry ONLY a virgin of Israel.
(as a side note, if we use this for our basis, then some would have to claim that we can’t even marry a widow, something completely lawful in Gods word)

These women who were not permitted to be taken by the priests there are these that had been put away from their husbands for just about any reason that the man could think up.

Also going back to Exodus 21:7-11, we clearly see conditions where this “wife†was permitted to walk out of her marriage a free woman. This is unrelated to the divorce by the man for ‘some uncleanness' (for every cause) found in her by him, but it does help to prove that the ending of a marriage was not new to Deuteronomy as some assert.

When we get to Deut 24:1-4, Moses laying out regulation for a frivolous putting away that had already been going on by a husband who had no lawful claim against the wife (such as Exodus is against the husband). He isn't laying out an ordinance for some new thing called 'divorce', he was placing limitations on what was already occurring in Israel.

Thus he isn't 'defining' what is permissible for divorce in Deut 24:1, they had already defined this putting away 'for EVERY cause' with the manner in which they had been tossing their wives out, Moses is simply stating that if this man has put her away for the causes he had been, which is pretty much anything he deemed as 'unclean' about her, then he MUST give her a bill of divorce and once RE married she could never be his wife again.

Moses didn't define exactly what the cause of divorce was for in Deut 24:1-4, the Hebrew people did with their frivolous reasoning's for this putting away, thus the reason for the ambiguous phrase "ervah dabar"...he is, in this regulation, saying that when this man has taken a wife and has found disfavor with her (as the Jews were doing), some ambiguous uncleanness' (ceremonial uncleanness is not completely out of line here), then he is to write her a bill of divorce and put it in her hand and send her out (if he wishes to do so, this wasn’t a commandment obviously since God would never "command" a man to divorce frivolously).

To make it clearer, Moses isn't defining what they CAN put their wives over in Deut 24:1-4, he is defining what they HAD been putting away their wives for...which any study will show that it was for just about any reason they could think up.

This is the reason why, and you will find this absolutely to be the case, that no one, not even the Jews today, can put an EXACT meaning and intent to the phrase 'some uncleaness' in Deut 24:1-4 there. It simply wasnt MEANT to define anything because there were MANY reasons these men were finding to put their wives away for, not anything specific.

The problem in Jesus day was that instead of helping the situation, Deut 24:1-4 made it worse because now the men turned this 'allowance' into a 'commandment' (see Matt 19) so that not only were these hardhearted ones putting away their wives for no just cause, but now they had a scapegoat to put the blame on....Moses...since supposedly he had commanded them to divorce.

(Bear in mind that this is all happening under the the old covenant. Jesus was a Jew born under law. The new covenant would not take effect until His death on the cross. When Jesus shows them that what they are doing is a sin...it is under the law that this is declared....it isnt something that just took effect with the new covenant being ratified.
Jesus declared what Moses hadnt...that this 'for EVERY cause' divorce to remarry IS sin.

When He said that adultery is committed when they do this the OLD covenant was still in effect (the new was not ratified until His death on the cross, which also took the old out of the way) so He was not saying that they WOULD be committing adultery under His NEW covenant, but they WERE even then...and if they WERE under the old covenant at any point, then they WERE the entire time.
Jesus did what Jesus did best with the Jews....exposed sin where they believed themselves guiltless.
Just as when He told them that they DID commit adultery when they lust after a woman. Did He mean ONLY after His new covenant took effect that this would be the case?
Absolutely not. They WERE, and HAD BEEN, committing adultery in their hearts any time they lusted in the manner He speaks of.
They WERE and HAD BEEN committing adultery when they were putting out their wives for some ambiguous 'uncleanness' to take another.
Jesus exposed their sin, it was nothing new or being defined as such only in this new covenant.)


Jesus shows that this is where they got it wrong. Moses hadnt 'commanded' them to do anything in this regard. He had tolerated their vile casting away of their wives and laid out regulation to try to control or end it.

The regulation in Deut 24:1-4 was given to this younger generation of Hebrews, most of those who had left Egypt were either very old or dead...remember they had been out there for decades...a whole new generation was alive now.
At the end of this wilderness journey is when Moses gives these speeches to repeat the law and give some additions such as the regulation in Deut 24:1-4.

When you read all the relevant passages regarding this issue, keep these things in mind and see if they don’t start all making sense to you.


I’m fully convinced, personally, that in His exceptions that Jesus’ main intent is not to offer any instruction on ‘why’ we can divorce, but I believe that His point is that He is assigning guilt where no guilt was previously designated. Obviously any exception shows condition, and that condition would clearly exist or it would be falsehood. But I believe that Jesus’ real point is mainly to show that even tho Moses hadnt said they were guilty of any crime in divorcing frivolously, that if they do so as they had been, the were guilty of sinning against their spouse who was put away for no just cause.

Moses had tolerated frivolous divorce from at least the time of Leviticus 21, but didn’t actually assign any real ‘sin’ as being committed when this man cast out his wife for no just cause.
The tone seems to be one where we might try to convince a man of the idea ‘NO...you CANNOT just go around killing people. ONLY if they are trying to kill you would you ever be justified in doing soâ€Â
You can see that there is no real ‘permission’ to kill people in what was said there, but only showing that while there may be some extreme circumstances that relieves one of guilt, killing is not generally tolerated.

The speaker there wouldn't be saying “Hey, wait till they try to kill you and THEN you can kill them (wink wink)â€Â. That wouldn't be the point at all.
Nor is it Jesus’ point to say “well, you just wait for her to commit adultery and THEN you can toss her out (wink wink) “

I think this is the tone Jesus took in the gospels with divorce. No, Moses hadn’t assigned guilt in the matter, but from the beginning it was not so. From the beginning man and woman were created to be companions for life and unless some extreme circumstance warrants putting her away. If you cast her out otherwise, and then think you are going to remarry, sorry, you commit adultery, as does she, and anyone who marries either of you.
I believe the reason Jesus made sure to include the persons marrying either of these two is to show the extent of the sin going on here. That this mans actions were so terrible that it didn’t just affect him or his wife, that it was like leaven working its way out from one simple act that Moses had tolerated and swallowing up everyone in its path.

I believe in the gospels that Jesus is simply presenting that men were guilty where the law did not define guilt in their actions.
We see this very same concept just before Jesus exception in Matt 5 where Jesus tells them that if they even think about a woman sexually they have already committed adultery with her.

Mat 5:27-28 Ye have heard that it was said by them of old time, Thou shalt not commit adultery: (28) But I say unto you, That whosoever looketh on a woman to lust after her hath committed adultery with her already in his heart.

Jesus is there also assigning guilt where none existed before. Internalizing it, making it personal. Defining ‘sin’ where none was thought to exist before. God wasnt just watching the outside of the man, but the heart and mind as well.
Oddly enough, in Matt 5 there while Jesus is right on that very train of thought He lays out the MDR statement.
 
Back
Top