Thessaloninas said:
1. Perhaps you could tell me who the infallible translators were in 1611?
2. Where in scripture does it say there will be infallible translators in 1611?
3. Why did God wait around till 1611 to have an infallible translation?
1. They were sinners – many were probably genuine Christians, many were sincere, holy men in the practical Christian lives, they were brilliant men, they were humble men, they felt they were unqualified to even be on the committee to translate God’s word one final time. But they were called and they sought to be used by God to do what they were called to do.
I never said these men were infallible but the God behind the men is. I never said they were inspired (they never believed it either) but…but…but what they put down I believe to be providentially guided by the providential hand of and all-powerful God. I do not believe the apostles, David, Moses, etc. were inspired either but what they put down was – II Tim. 3:16.
Thess – I believe God runs things – I believe he directed those men of different beliefs and views about doctrinal issues to put down what he wanted. These men were not dispensational in their beliefs but the book they put together was. Many were baby sprinklers and yet the Bible doesn’t teach that – many were post or a-millennial – the book doesn’t teach that but they translated anyway. Any ole’ bush will do – God can, has, and will use any instrument he chooses to carry out his directive will.
They were not infallible but what they put down was and much has been made light of the typos, printer errors, spellings etc. of which all has been covered before – Please see the works of Dr. David Reagan for this and others.
2. Nowhere. Nowhere does it say the apostles and the Jewish writers of the OT and the NT were infallible either – but what God had them put down was. David was an adulterer. Moses was a murderer and God used these men. Here is one for you – show me one scripture – I just need one – that only the original autographs were inspired. Let’s go further – give me one where it says the original autographs were inspired. I can show you in II Tim. 3:16 where scripture is but not the originals – though I personally believe they were but you can’t prove it from scripture – one takes it by faith. We are told to live and walk by faith.
3. Only God knows but is why I believe he waited until 1611. First, I believe, he waited till there was a king in England with a Jewish name. James comes from Jacob – the oracles were given to the Jews. God knew the modern world would be an English speaking world so he waited until the English language was at its peak and then had his word put down one final time. People will dispute this by saying we don’t this way anymore and there are right – the English language ahs gone down hill and is a English “slang†now – a mere shadow of what it is. People are dumber today due to public education, TV, newspapers and magazine, and internet. God knew what he was doing. Why “downgrade†the AV1611 by “updating†it to this modern English junk today. Dr. E. F. Hills covers this topic quite well. Instead of polluting God’s word why not have people learn to read again. The Holy Spirit is the teacher anyway.
Plus God used England to get his word out instead of Spain. Should have been Spain (humanly speaking) – they had the coastline and the navy but they were to busy stealing from the American Indians and persecuting believers in Europe so God sent Spain’s Armada to the bottom of the sea and turned it over to England who just kicked out Rome. Plus Spain aligned themselves with the Alexandrian manuscripts of Origen which were corrupt. The missionary movement came from England, Germany, Scotland, and America (English speaking) not Spain. Dispute this if you like – history is history. Spain has never, or ever will be responsible for true scriptural revival.
I trust that answers the questions thought I don’t think you will agree with much of it.
God bless
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