Great post Nocturnal!
Jesus was humbling Himself by coming down to earth. I think this is very important to understand, especially when addressing verses like John 17:3, John 5:30-33, and many of the other verses you have brought up.
Not that Jesus was declaring Himself less than God, but He was coming down to our humble human state and leaving His glory that He had with the Father "before the world began." He was essentially putting Himself under the Father's authority by coming down here among us. Philippians 2:6-8. Here's a good read, also from CARM: http://www.carm.org/doctrine/humbled.htm To quote from there:
http://www.carm.org/questions/why_forsake_me.htm That's a pretty good explanation. Psalm 22 is a messianic psalm, and Jesus was most likely quoting that. Also, like that page says, Jesus became sin for us, so
Again, we need to address these from the perspective that Jesus was indeed humbling Himself by coming down here to earth, becoming a Servant to His Father, and worshiping Him like a Servant would. So in that regard, yes, you could say that the Father is Jesus' God. But certainly not in the same sense that He is ours. And I think it's very important for us to understand that distinction.
God bless! Hope this post isn't too long!
-McQ 8-)
Gendou Ikari said:And Orthodox Christian the verse that you gave me even support my claims. Let's examine.
These things spake Jesus, and lifted up his eyes to the heaven, and said -- `Father, the hour hath come, glorify Thy Son, that Thy Son also may glorify Thee, according as Thou didst give to him authority over all flesh, that -- all that Thou hast given to him -- he may give to them life age-during; and this is the life age-during, that they may know Thee, the only true God, and him whom Thou didst send -- Jesus Christ; I did glorify Thee on the earth, the work I did finish that Thou hast given me, that I may do [it].`And now, glorify me, Thou Father, with Thyself, with the glory that I had before the world was, with Thee; (John 17:1-5)
Jesus was humbling Himself by coming down to earth. I think this is very important to understand, especially when addressing verses like John 17:3, John 5:30-33, and many of the other verses you have brought up.
Not that Jesus was declaring Himself less than God, but He was coming down to our humble human state and leaving His glory that He had with the Father "before the world began." He was essentially putting Himself under the Father's authority by coming down here among us. Philippians 2:6-8. Here's a good read, also from CARM: http://www.carm.org/doctrine/humbled.htm To quote from there:
Also from that link:John 5:27, "and He gave Him authority to execute judgment, because He is the Son of Man."
Jesus, as a man under the Law, cooperated with the limitations of being a man. As a man, authority would have to be given Him. Remember, Jesus was not moving out of His divine nature, but was moving and walking as a man in order to fulfill the Law completely and properly.
Because Jesus was made lower than the angels, as a man, there are certain ramifications to this humbled and emptied condition.
That Jesus was subject to the Law, (Gal. 4:4).
Jesus was subject to the Father who sent Him, (John 5:30).
Jesus would be circumcised, (Luke 1:59).
Jesus would grow in wisdom and stature, (Luke 2:52).
Jesus would not know all things (Mark 13:32).
etc.
The above facts do not negate the deity of Christ. God could easily become a man, humble Himself, join Himself to human nature and then be subject to the Law, to grow, to learn, etc. This would be a natural result of being a man, wouldn't it? And, it would not negate the deity of Christ at all. It only demonstrates that the Word made flesh was fully a man. Col. 2:9 says, "For in Him [Jesus] all the fullness of Deity dwells in bodily form."
and about the ninth hour Jesus cried out with a great voice, saying, `Eli, Eli, lama sabachthani?' that is, `My God, my God, why didst Thou forsake me? (Matthew 27:46)
Who is Jesus's God? He is certainly not saying, "Why did I forsake myself." No, He is saying, "Why did My God(The Father), my God(The Father), forsake me."
http://www.carm.org/questions/why_forsake_me.htm That's a pretty good explanation. Psalm 22 is a messianic psalm, and Jesus was most likely quoting that. Also, like that page says, Jesus became sin for us, so
which would have resulted in the Son crying out in anguish.It is possible that at some moment on the cross, when Jesus became sin on our behalf, that God the Father, in a sense, turned His back upon the Son.
Blessed [is] the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who did bless us in every spiritual blessing in the heavenly places in Christ, (Ephesians 1:3)
Blessed [is] the God and Father of our Lord Jesus Christ, who, according to the abundance of His kindness did beget us again to a living hope, through the rising again of Jesus Christ out of the dead, (1 Peter 1:3)
Again, we need to address these from the perspective that Jesus was indeed humbling Himself by coming down here to earth, becoming a Servant to His Father, and worshiping Him like a Servant would. So in that regard, yes, you could say that the Father is Jesus' God. But certainly not in the same sense that He is ours. And I think it's very important for us to understand that distinction.
God bless! Hope this post isn't too long!
-McQ 8-)