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Is Genesis 1:2 translated correctly, according to the manuscripts

Accuracy of translation is more important than how many, or how few, translators there were. All translations, when compared to the manuscripts, are full of errors. One glaring error is Easter (pagan goddess of fertility), found one time in Acts. This should have been translated Passover, not Easter.

Strong's Greek Lexicon Search Results
Result of search for "Easter":
3957. pascha pas'-khah of Chaldee origin (compare 6453); the Passover (the meal, the day, the festival or the special sacrifices connected with it)
My point is not to the numbers but to the credibility. Like I said, I don't know how to read Hebrew, Greek, or any other language of the original manuscripts so I am left to rely on the translations as I have them available. So, in order for 100 scholars (I have to assume they are learned) to agree to translate a phrase a certain way, I am in no position to disagree and certainly in no position to accept one person's opinion against that of the other 100+.

What I am able to do is read the text in various translations to understand the underlying meaning of what God wants me to walk away with. Is it possible the term "Easter" was synonymous with "Passover" at the time the KJV Bible was translated? I don't know, just asking.
 
My point is not to the numbers but to the credibility. Like I said, I don't know how to read Hebrew, Greek, or any other language of the original manuscripts so I am left to rely on the translations as I have them available. So, in order for 100 scholars (I have to assume they are learned) to agree to translate a phrase a certain way, I am in no position to disagree and certainly in no position to accept one person's opinion against that of the other 100+.

What I am able to do is read the text in various translations to understand the underlying meaning of what God wants me to walk away with. Is it possible the term "Easter" was synonymous with "Passover" at the time the KJV Bible was translated? I don't know, just asking.

From what I have read in the old commentaries, it was synonymous. Easter was not taken to mean just one day but the whole Easter week before Resurrection Day.
 
But the holiday of Easter was borrowed by Constantine to ease the transition for many pagans to become Christians. Really, there is no place in the bible for the mention of Easter, but of the event that was actually taking place at that time of the year, which was passover, and the resurrection.
 
I am not going to tell God how He should
Because “was” in Genesis 1:2 should have been translated “became”.

This is important because, if you do not understand the beginning, you’ll never understand the end.
Why should it have been translated "because" or are you putting your own words into it?I don't read the KJV.
 
But the holiday of Easter was borrowed by Constantine to ease the transition for many pagans to become Christians. Really, there is no place in the bible for the mention of Easter, but of the event that was actually taking place at that time of the year, which was passover, and the resurrection.

This is somewhat what I have read.
Easter is an English word. Constantine did not speak English and the pagans living around him did not speak English.
Constantine spoke Latin. The celebration of Christ's death and resurrection in Latin is 'Pascha'. French, Spanish, and Italian for this celebration are all similar in spelling to that of the Latin.

Did Constantine bring to this holy day traditions such as colored eggs? No he didn't. What he did do was change the date so that it wouldn't fall on the same days as the Jewish Passover.
As time went by the pagan traditions that were attached to the celebrating of spring made their way into the traditions of some Christians but not all Christians.

Personally I think Constantine and later the Council did a huge harm to the church by not continuing to celebrate the Messiah's death and resurrection at the same time as the Jews celebrate their Passover and actually are not celebrating it according to the date scripture says to.
 
Yes, I know that's true. I will, however, stay with the KJV because with the Strong's I can take every word in it back to the original languages.
Now let us look at Acts 12:3, 4:

"And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people."

Verse 3 shows that Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread (April 15-21). The Bible says: "Then were the days of unleavened bread." The passover (April 14th) had already come and gone. Herod could not possibly have been referring to the passover in his statement concerning Easter. The next Passover was a year away! But the pagan holiday of Easter was just a few days away. Remember! Herod was a pagan Roman who worshipped the "queen of heaven". He was NOT a Jew. He had no reason to keep the Jewish passover. Some might argue that he wanted to wait until after the passover for fear of upsetting the Jews. There are two grievous faults in this line of thinking.

http://www.av1611.org/kjv/easter.html
 
Now let us look at Acts 12:3, 4:

"And because he saw it pleased the Jews, he proceeded further to take Peter also. (Then were the days of unleavened bread.) And when he had apprehended him, he put him in prison, and delivered him to four quaternions of soldiers to keep him; intending after Easter to bring him forth to the people."

Verse 3 shows that Peter was arrested during the days of unleavened bread (April 15-21). The Bible says: "Then were the days of unleavened bread." The passover (April 14th) had already come and gone. Herod could not possibly have been referring to the passover in his statement concerning Easter. The next Passover was a year away! But the pagan holiday of Easter was just a few days away. Remember! Herod was a pagan Roman who worshipped the "queen of heaven". He was NOT a Jew. He had no reason to keep the Jewish passover. Some might argue that he wanted to wait until after the passover for fear of upsetting the Jews. There are two grievous faults in this line of thinking.

http://www.av1611.org/kjv/easter.html

Mar 14:12 And the first day of unleavened bread, when they killed the passover, his disciples said unto him, Where wilt thou that we go and prepare that thou mayest eat the passover?

It can get confusing, here we see in this scripture where the first day of unleavened bread is not the 15th but before it.

Josephus in writing about this Herod said that he was zealous for the Jewish law and traditions. It appears that Herod who came from an Edomite family was a proselyte of the Jewish faith.
 
My point is not to the numbers but to the credibility. Like I said, I don't know how to read Hebrew, Greek, or any other language of the original manuscripts so I am left to rely on the translations as I have them available. So, in order for 100 scholars (I have to assume they are learned) to agree to translate a phrase a certain way, I am in no position to disagree and certainly in no position to accept one person's opinion against that of the other 100+.

What I am able to do is read the text in various translations to understand the underlying meaning of what God wants me to walk away with. Is it possible the term "Easter" was synonymous with "Passover" at the time the KJV Bible was translated? I don't know, just asking.

Granted, not many folks can read all the languages of the original manuscripts; however, for English speakers there are many excellent tools available for them. Those tools allow you to check out what anyone says about the Word.

In the 1611 King James, the translators wrote two letters: one to the king, the other to the reader. Those translators said that they did the best they could, but to check it (manuscripts) out for yourself.

Jeremiah 17:5 Thus saith the LORD; Cursed be the man that trusteth in man, and maketh flesh his arm, and whose heart departeth from the LORD.

Man will sooner or later mislead you - sometimes knowingly, sometimes unkowingly. That’s why we must learn to think for ourselves, so that we can check out what any person says about His Word.

No, Easter (pagan goddess of fertility) is not synonymous with Passover.

Deuteronomy 4:2 Ye shall not add unto the word which I command you, neither shall ye diminish ought from it, that ye may keep the commandments of the Lord your God which I command you.

Revelation 22:18 For I testify unto every man that heareth the words of the prophecy of this book, If any man shall add unto these things, God shall add unto him the plagues that are written in this book:
 
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