The UNCIAL text often abbreviated [God] and [Jesus] (James White's
The King James Only Controversy, 1995:207-9;
https://www.biblegateway.com/resources/encyclopedia-of-the-bible/Text-Manuscripts-New-Testament). Eg, if in 1 Tm.3:16, ΘΕΟΣ would have been written as ΘΣ, with a line above covering both letters. White suspected that an early scribe mistakenly copied such as ΟΣ (he)—easily done on a busy day from a cluttered text without spaces! Hence did the text say [God], or [he]?
Many such instances in the NT, at least, but none that affect doctrine.
I don't think it makes a difference if it states HE or GOD.
It's speaking about God (1 Tim 3:16), Jesus.
But Jesus was revealed in the flesh...
and so was God.
Taken up in glory shows the subject is Jesus...
I'm good with either.
On covenants, see such as Israel's Gone Global (Steve Hakes). But in rough, Sinai, no longer active, was not given to the church. Thus we do not do physical circumcision as a way to obey Yahweh. However, Sinai also incorporated global imperatives, so we still do [don't murder], separating the non-Sinai specific, from the global. Further, we see global attitudes (occultism remains wrong), detached by Christ from Sinai responses (execution).
No covenant replaces the previous, but it changes it in some way and makes it better or more extensive.
The New Covenant replaced ALL previous covenants by making a change that could not be improved upon...
and so Covenants ended. The New and Eternal Covenant.
But even this one kept some old concepts and I shouldn't have used the word REPLACED, but my time here is limited and I make such mistakes at times.
I must say, you're the only calvinist I can speak to with any amount of intelligence (on my part).
Usually it boils down to silly arguments and downright insults at times.
But you've missed my point about the Covenants.
The Edenic and Mosaic Covenants are:
BILATERAL - both sides must agree, God and man
CONDITIONAL - both sides have conditions that must be kept.
My question is: IF a condition must be kept (usually obedience) doesn't that mean that man has free will?
I'd like not to debate what free will is as with Roger.
Free will: The ability to choose between 2 moral options with outside influences, but without outside coercion.
How does God make a covenant with man and tell man that God will keep His part of the deal, but man must keep his part of the deal IF GOD PREDETERMINED whether or not man will keep his part??
This is a question that really interests me.
So far no reply.
Maybe the reformed have no reply.
Are the reformed encouraged to study the covenants?