D
Dave Slayer
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Is it possible for a man to become pregnant through evolutionary mutations? Can a man accidently be born with woman's parts instead of man's parts? Has it ever happened?
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John said:a man has never gave birth. However there are causes where one has both female and male parts one is more dominate though.
I don't think so.Dave Slayer said:John said:a man has never gave birth. However there are causes where one has both female and male parts one is more dominate though.
If she/he has both parts, couldn't he/she just "do it" with themself and get pregnant?
I don't think so.Nick_29 said:[quote="Dave Slayer":22ttulv2]John said:a man has never gave birth. However there are causes where one has both female and male parts one is more dominate though.
If she/he has both parts, couldn't he/she just "do it" with themself and get pregnant?
That's what I was getting at. It would have to be close together and really longDave Slayer said:Well, it would be possible if the parts were close together and long enough. :P
LOL!Dave Slayer said:Also, they would be their own "sperm doner". :D
Firstly I don't think that can happen. But lets assume that it does. You've heard of inbreeding, right? This would take it to another level! :DDave Slayer said:But what is someone was born with both male and female parts and also a uterus? Could they get pregnant then?
Testicular feminization syndrome: Now more appropriately called the complete androgen insensitivity syndrome, this is a genetic disorder that makes XY fetuses insensitive (unresponsive) to androgens (male hormones). Instead, they are born looking externally like normal girls. Internally, there is a short blind-pouch vagina and no uterus, fallopian tubes or ovaries. There are testes in the abdomen or the inguinal canal.
Is it possible for a man to get pregnant through mutations?
Crying Rock said:Is it possible for a man to get pregnant through mutations?
No, but I know of one woman that became pregnant without any man's help. I hear the kid was pretty cool. ;)