I'm curious. How does this clause protect the government from being run by any one religion?
Let's read it again.
"Congress shall make no laws respecting the establishment of religion, or prohibiting the free exercise thereof."
I see that the amendment protects the people from a government forcing any religious agenda upon the people but I do not see the reverse. It was a statement made by Thomas Jefferson that was taken out of context by the Supreme Court in 1878 that started this whole problem and has since misled the public and the courts ever since. I think it was and always will be a mistake to allow our courts to make law. That's the role of congress. The courts are only supposed to declare whether a law made by congress is constitutional or not and only when it has been challenged.
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