C
CSICop
Guest
It has long been established that the KJV is erroneous with several passages (blame Jerome - 4th century AD) and this particular passage often leaves me wondering. I grew up as a Southern Baptist and we used the KJV exclusively, but recently, through a good friend who is a theology major, I have grown to prefer the NIV or HCSB for greater accuracy in translation.
I find it interesting that we were taught that Lucifer is Satan, only to find out later that it was a false translation, and that in the original Hebrew there is no name mentioned. It's also interesting that the passage is not about Satan, but a fallen king of Babylon (Tyr). Even though this information is widely known, it is still taught incorrectly.
I guess my questioning is about the validity of the KJV and why these incorrect teachings are still being used today.
There are others...
I find it interesting that we were taught that Lucifer is Satan, only to find out later that it was a false translation, and that in the original Hebrew there is no name mentioned. It's also interesting that the passage is not about Satan, but a fallen king of Babylon (Tyr). Even though this information is widely known, it is still taught incorrectly.
I guess my questioning is about the validity of the KJV and why these incorrect teachings are still being used today.
There are others...