cyberjosh
Member
This yahoo answers page had a question posed about why some people say that the priests violated their typical rules of meeting for trial to prosecute Jesus, and many responses (by people I presume are Jews, or Jew sympathizers, judging from their answers) were given about how the Jews would have under no circumstances operated in the recorded way. I was wanting to know your thoughts on it and see if anyone can come up with some good rebuttals for those claims - read the posts by Phoenix and "Cat's Meow" especially.
I can think of one thing already that is wrong with their arguement, in that they say they wouldn't have tried him just for claming to be Messiah since there had been other "pretend Messiahs" (Gamaliel actually mentions one of them in Acts), and the answer to that claim is: they didn't try him just for claming to be messiah but for claiming to be the Son of God, which they considered blasphemy. Also remember that there was a false accusation that he was seditious and wanted to "tear down the temple" in three days - since they grossly misunderstood what he had said.
Also where Cat's Meow claimed that for the Jews being accused alot of adhering to their laws too closely that they seemed to be breaking an awful lot of it by holding the trial as they did, I think that person might have also missed out on specific details that the Jews were indeed still following their careful rules after the trial when they went to Pilate as it says in John 18:28, "Then the Jews led Jesus from Caiaphas to the palace of the Roman governor. By now it was early morning, and to avoid ceremonial uncleanness the Jews did not enter the palace". Despite the priests cheating their justice system as much as they had, they still were adhering quite close to their ceremonial laws. And I also think it is unreasonable to think that the Sanhedrin would have been good "law-abiding" rulers all the time and "anything that suggests otherwise must be suspect", which is almost what is being claimed here.
Nonetheless, if I am ever to debate this with a non-christian it would be nice to have some specific and detailed points of rebuttal, so i'm throwing this out as an open forum to you guys.
God Bless,
~Josh
I can think of one thing already that is wrong with their arguement, in that they say they wouldn't have tried him just for claming to be Messiah since there had been other "pretend Messiahs" (Gamaliel actually mentions one of them in Acts), and the answer to that claim is: they didn't try him just for claming to be messiah but for claiming to be the Son of God, which they considered blasphemy. Also remember that there was a false accusation that he was seditious and wanted to "tear down the temple" in three days - since they grossly misunderstood what he had said.
Also where Cat's Meow claimed that for the Jews being accused alot of adhering to their laws too closely that they seemed to be breaking an awful lot of it by holding the trial as they did, I think that person might have also missed out on specific details that the Jews were indeed still following their careful rules after the trial when they went to Pilate as it says in John 18:28, "Then the Jews led Jesus from Caiaphas to the palace of the Roman governor. By now it was early morning, and to avoid ceremonial uncleanness the Jews did not enter the palace". Despite the priests cheating their justice system as much as they had, they still were adhering quite close to their ceremonial laws. And I also think it is unreasonable to think that the Sanhedrin would have been good "law-abiding" rulers all the time and "anything that suggests otherwise must be suspect", which is almost what is being claimed here.
Nonetheless, if I am ever to debate this with a non-christian it would be nice to have some specific and detailed points of rebuttal, so i'm throwing this out as an open forum to you guys.
God Bless,
~Josh