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John 5:18 Accusers Refuted

wavy

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John 5:18
Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the Sabbath, but said also that יהוה was his Father, making himself equal with יהוה.

Now I don’t know who you, the reader, specifically are, but I would guess you believe that the Messiah never broke any part of the torah given to Moses by Yahweh. Most people that I know don’t at least.

However, we do have those people who wrongly believe this. They accuse Messiah falsely of blatantly breaking Yahweh’s commands.

But let's see what the Messiah had to say about himself (his words always in italics):

Matthew 5:17
Think not that I am come to destroy the torah, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill.

Now this verse (and the ones afterwards) are sometimes interpreted to mean the opposite of how I am going to use them, but we will see who's interpretation holds up.

Verse 17 is sometimes interpreted to mean he didn't necessarily destroy it, but did it so we don't have to do it the conventional way (which is a play on words to mean he really destroyed it in a "nice way"). I believe this is wrong. To "fulfill" means to “make repleteâ€Â, or "abundantly supply". To make full use of. To fill it up. To make the most of it. The base word that is used here (pleroo) is also used here (among many passages):

John 15:11
These things have I spoken unto you, that my joy might remain in you, and that your joy might be full.

The Greek word pleroo. Of course, our Messiah didn't mean that his disciples should have all the joy perfectly so they could finally not have joy anymore, or that their joy changed.

And again, the "law" (Greek word nomos) does not specifically refer to what came from Sinai from Yahweh to Moshe. It can mean the Psalms (John 10:34; John 15:25) and the other writings too (Romans 3:10-19). It can also mean a principle, such as "law of faith" (Romans 3:27). So let us not let our biases against torah here overtake us into misinterpreting this passage. For further details on what he meant and how I view this, you can read the study “How Did Messiah Fulfill The Torah/Law?†in “Wavy’s Views†(check the signature).

Also, he stated that whoever breaks the least of these commandments (in torah, the context of what he is talking about) he will be called the least in the kingdom of heaven. Many say these commandments refer to the ones he mentions afterwards, but here is a clear rebuttal of that notion:

Expositor's Bible Commentary: said:
But what are "these commandments"? It is hard to justify restriction of these words to Jesus' teachings, . . . for the noun in Matthew never refers to Jesus' words, and the context argues against it. Restriction to the Ten Commandments is equally alien to the concerns of the context. Nor can we say "these commandments" refers to the antitheses that follow, for in Matthew houtos ("this," pl. "these") never points forward. It appears, then, that the expression must refer to the commandments of the OT (old testament). The entire Law and the Prophets are not scrapped by Jesus' coming but fulfilled. Therefore, the commandments of these Scriptures--even the least of them--must be practiced . . . . The law pointed forward to Jesus and his teaching; . . . so he, in fulfilling it, establishes . . . the way it is to be obeyed" (volume 1, page 146).

However, he does in the following verses interpret the torah in a different (and true and righteous) manner other than the interpretations of the teachers of that day. Many try to say he is directly changing torah mitzvot here. I believe this is untrue. At the end of his teaching, the people were amazed because he did not teach as the scribes, not because he violated or changed the torah (Matthew 7:29).

Considering lastly verse 20, the righteousness of the Pharisees and scribes is not true torah obedience (as some want to teach as an argument against torah observance) but hypocrisy:

Matthew 23:1
Then spake יהושׁע to the multitude, and to his disciples,
Matthew 23:2
Saying, The scribes and the Pharisees sit in Moses' seat:
Matthew 23:3
All therefore whatsoever they bid you observe, that observe and do; but do not ye after their works: for they say, and do not.
Matthew 23:4
For they bind heavy burdens and grievous to be borne, and lay them on men's shoulders; but they themselves will not move them with one of their fingers.


Matthew 23:23
Woe unto you, scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! for ye pay tithe of mint and anise and cummin, and have omitted the weightier matters of the torah, judgment, mercy, and faith: these ought ye to have done, and not to leave the other undone.


SO WHAT ABOUT JOHN 5:18???!!!

Well, here we go now that we have some form of background:

John 5:18
Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill him, because he not only had broken the Sabbath, but said also that יהוה was his Father, making himself equal with יהוה.

What just happened? He was at a place called Beth Chesed (meaning "house of goodness/mercy") which had five porches (for the five books of torah and their goodness/mercy as far I’ve been told). This was on the Sabbath, of course.

There was a man who had some type of disease. Yahshua saw him and asked him if he would be made well. Yahshua told him to take up his quilt/pallet/bed and walk.

The Jews saw him and told him it was not lawful for him to carry his bed. He replied that the man that healed him told him to do it. They wondered who. He didn't know but ran into Messiah later in the temple. He went and told the Jews who asked him and they wanted to kill Yahshua after they found out. The bible says:

John 5:17
But יהושׁע answered them, My Father worketh hitherto, and I work.

What does this mean? Many like to take this out of context and say he meant he was violating the Sabbath by working on it and that he was admitting he had done this. But what was his work?

The healing of the man. Miracles of healing to restore the nation spiritually and physically (Isaiah 53:4; Hosea 6:1-2; Matthew 8:17). He always defended himself when doing good as commanded by his Father, giving glory to him, such as in these examples:

John 10:32
יהושׁע answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from my Father; for which of those works do ye stone me?


John 14:10
Believest thou not that I am in the Father, and the Father in me? the words that I speak unto you I speak not of myself: but the Father that dwelleth in me, he doeth the works.

As is seen in these examples (there are many more) the context was always healing or some miracle. He never meant he was working on the Sabbath to violate it. All he was doing was healing. This, in essence, is what he was saying in John 5:17. In addition, by analogy, if he was working like his Father then he could not have been breaking the Sabbath because the Father in heaven couldn’t possibly be breaking it.

Many then say that he was most certainly breaking it because John, under the inspiration of the Spirit, wrote it himself that he was. But does this mean from the dogmas of Jewish law or from true torah obedience?

The Jewish fences around torah were considered just as equally authorative, and sometimes more authorative than the written torah.

Here's an excerpt about Mishna that is interesting:

The second law given to Moses at Sinai, known as Torah she-be'al-peh, is the exposition of the Written Law as relayed by the scholarly and other religious leaders of each generation. This Oral Law is, in some sense, the more authoritative of the two. The traditions of the Oral Law are considered as the basis for the interpretation, and often for the reading, of the Written Law.

- http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Mishna

But what was Messiah breaking? What was his crime? What were they accusing him of? What had he done? Mercifully healed man? Told the man to carry his bed? Is that a true violation and the definition of a "burden" as defined in Jeremiah (a popularly used scripture to say the Sabbath was indeed broken here)?

Jeremiah 17:21
Thus saith יהוה; Take heed to yourselves, and bear no burden on the Sabbath day, nor bring it in by the gates of Jerusalem;

If we look at the context, we see bringing things through the gates of the city (which indicates buying/selling/trading). Is carrying a mere mat/quilt/pallet a true burden? Let's see how Jewish tradition outlines what is forbidden on the Sabbath:

The 39 activities are (Mishna Shabbat 7:2): said:
Sowing
Plowing
Reaping
Binding sheaves
Threshing
Winnowing
Selecting
Grinding
Sifting
Kneading
Baking
Shearing wool
Washing wool
Beating wool
Dyeing wool
Spinning
Weaving
Making two loops
Weaving two threads
Separating two threads
Tying
Untying
Sewing stitches
Tearing
Trapping
Slaughtering
Flaying
Salting meat
Curing hide
Scraping hide
Cutting hide up
Writing two or more letters
Erasing two or more letters
Building
Tearing something down
Extinguishing a fire
Kindling a fire
Putting the finishing touch on an object
Transporting an object between a private domain and the public domain, or within the public domain



- http://www.judaica-guide.com/sabbath-shabbat.htm

As we so plainly see, some of this is absolutely ridiculous nonsense!!!

This is what they accused him of based off of their standards. John meant he was breaking the Sabbath according to this. Then some say, "why didn't he defend himself?" He did defend himself. He said he was working (to heal and restore Israel - Hosea 6:1-2) as his Father commanded him and does through him.

He also denies their accusation of him being equal with the Father by submitting himself humbly and telling them the truth:

John 5:19
Then answered יהושׁע and said unto them, Verily, verily, I say unto you, The Son can do nothing of himself, but what he seeth the Father do: for what things soever he doeth, these also doeth the Son likewise.
John 5:20
For the Father loveth the Son, and sheweth him all things that himself doeth: and he will shew him greater works than these, that ye may marvel.

And are the works in verse 20 the kind that violate the Sabbath? No, of course not. The works are healing and the greater works that are marvelous are these:

John 5:21
For as the Father raiseth up the dead, and quickeneth them; even so the Son quickeneth whom he will.

This is about giving life: healing the nation and raising them up, as per Hosea 6:1-2. These are not forbidden on the Sabbath. It is lawful to do good on the Sabbath. If his point was that it was okay to break it by saying "My Father work's until now and I work", then in all other instances when he was accused of breaking it he would have said "it is lawful to break and do [occupational] work on the Sabbath".

The word for "broken" here in John 5:18 is the Greek word luo, meaning "to loose".

Yahshua said:

Matthew 5:17
Think not that I am come to destroy the torah, or the prophets: I am not come to destroy, but to fulfill.

The word here is kataluo, a compound of the words kata (down) and luo (break/loose), so it means "to break/loosen down". He did not come to do this. That's why he said:

Matthew 5:19
Whosoever therefore shall break one of these least commandments, and shall teach men so, he shall be called the least in the kingdom of heaven: but whosoever shall do and teach them, the same shall be called great in the kingdom of heaven.

The word for "break" here? Luo. He couldn’t possibly have charged us with this if he was going to luo things himself. The Jews that accused, ridiculed and disbelieved Messiah were not truly torah obedient:

John 5:45
Do not think that I will accuse you to the Father: there is one that accuseth you, even Moses, in whom ye trust.
John 5:46
For had ye believed Moses, ye would have believed me: for he wrote of me.
John 5:47
But if ye believe not his writings, how shall ye believe my words?


John 7:19
Did not Moses give you the torah, and yet none of you keepeth the torah? Why go ye about to kill me?

We have to be extra careful not to equate the way the unbelieving Jews of that generation (under the corrupt Jewish leaders) viewed and applied the torah, to the way the torah is supposed to be understood. Messiah was not against the good way of torah. He was against deceit, hate, falsehood and manmade tradition that hid and destroyed the truth. I think this is where the fatal mistake of believing the "law is done away with" ultimately comes from: looking at it through the eyes of the corrupt Jews, thinking it was true torah obedience, and then thinking Messiah is against true torah obedience.

If Messiah broke the Sabbath or attempted to tell the healed man that he could break the Sabbath (or any other law), he’d be in violation of Deuteronomy 13:1-5 (specifically verse 5), and therefore condemned as a false prophet. He would not be the Messiah, and our faith would be a sham.

I am still learning and growing. So I will not teach commandments and press on people commandments that I do not keep myself. But I am simply conveying this principle:

Proverbs 28:9
He that turneth away his ear from hearing the torah, even his prayer shall be abomination.

And the calling of Yahweh to go back to the good derech/way, to the torah (Jeremiah 6:16-19). Do not be one of the people from this passage who say "we will not listen or walk in that way".

Yahshua wants to bring us back to the good way and torah through himself and his teaching (Matthew 11:28-30).

He is not like the Sanhedrin with their fences and traditions. His new wine cannot fit into their old bottles.

Thus I hold all "John 5:18 Accusers" as refuted.

Peace and love in ha Moshiach Yahshua.
 
Wavy....here is the kiss of death to your post....GREAT JOB......VERY WELL DONE.
 
Not saying that I couldn't be wrong on some points, but as for the whole theme of the message, you've got to do a lot of flexible mental gymnastics to be able to disprove that.

I don't see how anyone could. Not at this moment.

But you always have interesting things to say Georges (at least I think so). Do you have anything to add? I'm interested in what you have to say.
 
Georges said:
Wavy....here is the kiss of death to your post....GREAT JOB......VERY WELL DONE.
Naw, it's kiss of death was it's length.

:smt018
 
:-D Well, I like to be semi-thorough. I could have went on and on and on...

But, are you saying it wasn't a good argument, Vic? What is your opinion?
 
Right at the very outset of Wavy's flawed dissertation we can find obvious errors in thought. What valid ground then does he present for the rest of his speaking to be built upon?

None.

Truth is out of God. Its God expressed.

Not God plus corruption expressed.

Truth isn't "reasonings", man's theology or even man's translation of something, truth is just God expressed.

So if you want to know if something is true you must look for God in it.

And if we know one thing from scripture, God is not a mixture, God is pure.

Therefore we can know that anything that can be found to be a mixture cannot be the truth.


And so, with this light lets look at Wavy's opening statement and see if it sets a foundation of truth on which his speaking is further built in truth.

(A side example,... my mom loved and cared for animals, they were almost like members of the family. She used to cook the food for our dogs, cornmeal and the parts of the chicken that would be thrown out by the groceries as "dog food". Sometimes we would come into the kitchen and the aroma that was coming from the pot of cooking dog food would be great. Really, you felt that you could pick up a bowl and serve some out for yourself. My uncle even did this once thinking it was our dinner. But, no matter how good it smelt, or may have even tasted, it was still food for the dogs. And in this simple illustration can be found a very important divine principle.)


wavy said:
However, we do have those people who are so anti-semitic....

".... anti-semitic"....... What is anti-semitic?

It is, in its purest original form, ideas about how "Semitic races" were/are inferior to "Aryan races."

So what in fact Wavy is stating is that "we (not sure who he lumps in together to get this "we", but that's for another time) do have.... those (again ???).... people who firmly believe that the Semitic-races are inferior to Aryan races."

This is the truth of what Wavy is claiming, that there is a faction here that considers the Jews an inferior human to themselves... first in vagueness ("we", "those")..... and then, as will be seen below, in his erroneous use of religious doctrine, traditions and forms, as the point of contention that issue from this inferior/superior human concept that some he claims hold to.

This saints, is such a perversion of the truth, and it utterly exposes the sick condition that the holding to of false doctrines can cause.


wavy said:
...... and so passionate about disregarding everything associated with Jews and "Judaism" (although Torah is not "Judaism") and hate Yahweh's Torah so much, that they are willing to go to the lengths of claiming that Yahshua openly and blatantly broke Yahweh's commands!!!

Who here is making such a claim?

That the perfect sacrifice, the perfect Lamb of God, did not fulfil the law perfectly?

As to make such a claim is to negate the very foundation on which this Lamb stands as the perfect and final sacrifice, the eternal sacrifice. A sacrifice for our very salvation.

Who here believes into Christ while holding the thought that Christ is not able, as a result of Him not being the perfect sacrifice?

The above statement of Wavy's is such a crock, so deceiving in its motive and purpose.

And it is upon this foundation of untruth and deception that he goes on to say.....

wavy said:
..... They need a few lessons in interpreting the scriptures correctly the way it ought to be understood........

We all do Wavy,..... but not from one who builds on a foundation other than Christ, He who is the truth.



In love,
cj
 
It seems you feel that I directed this whole post at you, cj. Guilty conscience???

Or is it the fact that you do not have an acceptable alternative? Either way, it seems to be that your method of displaying truth is your own propogated words + lack of scriptural proof.
 
wavy said:
It seems you feel that I directed this whole post at you, cj.

Not at all Wavy.

See, I'm quite clear about who I am and where I stand,.... and I try to be true to both.

But allow me to remind you that this is a public forum, and is such to discuss ideas and thoughts (within the boundaries of the FORUM's governing economy). Therefore, offended feeling are not needed as motivation to respond to something that was said,... just a desire for what you have to say to be heard.

Yet I understand why you would ignore this most obvious fact of forum participation in your attempt to label my response as sour-grapes; you have no better way to respond.

Meaning this Wavy,...... you got BUSTED, right at the beginning of your long spiel. And the best you could do was try to stir up some kind of smoke screen to hide the facts.

wavy said:
Guilty conscience???

Not at all.

Why should I have one when it was clearly shown that you have no ground in Christ for anything you said.

wavy said:
Or is it the fact that you do not have an acceptable alternative?

Oh I have an "acceptable" Alternative to your false altar,.... a very acceptable Alternative.

wavy said:
Either way, it seems to be that your method of displaying truth is your own propogated words + lack of scriptural proof.

Truth is simply God.

And when God is present the lie becomes obviously clear.

What you would like us to do is by-pass your errors at the beginning of your post and try to understand (come to agree) with the rest of the content.

But what the scriptures tell us is that its not the words that are corrupt but the motive of the heart that corrupts the words.

And from the outset of your speaking we can see that your motive is corrupt, for you attempt to set up a false foundation on which to build.

Go and relay your foundation and then come back and present you thoughts.


In love,
cj
 
If anyone cares to refute any of wavy's claims, go for it. But attack the post, not the poster, That is the rule. cj, two lengthy posts attacking the person, but not one verse in either post. :(

This line of public interrogation from members HAS TO STOP! :x
 
Greetings Wavy:

I had some difficulty in understanding your post. Can you distill your main point(s) into a short set of clear statements?

I should let you know my present position on matters of "the Law"

1. I do not know the scope of this term - which OT edicts are part of "the Law"

2. I do not have a firm sense of what Jesus means when He says He has come to "fulfill" the Law.

3. I am presently of the view that in Matthew 12, Jesus was advocating breaking of "the Law" in certain circumstances.
 
Drew said:
Greetings Wavy:

I had some difficulty in understanding your post. Can you distill your main point(s) into a short set of clear statements?

Messiah didn't break the Torah/Law, he didn't advocate breaking it, and we shouldn't break it either.

I should let you know my present position on matters of "the Law"

1. I do not know the scope of this term - which OT edicts are part of "the Law"

2. I do not have a firm sense of what Jesus means when He says He has come to "fulfill" the Law.

3. I am presently of the view that in Matthew 12, Jesus was advocating breaking of "the Law" in certain circumstances.

#1. Torah is mistranslated as "law". Torah on a broader scope means "instruction". It is generally defined as the first 5 books of Moses.

#2. What he meant by "fulfill" is to obey it (really them, meaning law and prophets; people seem to want to focus on the law part). To reveal it by his words and actions. To let them know who he was and why he had to do what he had to do (die). He said "blessed is he, whoever shall not be offended in me".

Offended by what? His role to die.

#3. What you are seeing is a principle of Hebraic interpretation called kal va-chomer. It means "light and heavy". What it teaches is that when two commandments or principles contradict, you have to determine what is the heavier (greater/weightier) issue. Messiah's problem with many of the Sanhedrin was that they hardly took thought for the greater issue, but focused too much on the letter (and so they forgot the reason Torah was given; it was not so we can find the best ways to follow every letter no matter what). Fences were placed around the Torah so as not too break the actual commandment. This is what Messiah refers to when he says things like "the sabbath is made for man, not man for the sabbath".

An example of kal va-chomer in Matthew 12:

Matthew 12:11 And he said unto them, What man shall there be among you, that shall have one sheep, and if it fall into a pit on the sabbath day, will he not lay hold on it, and lift it out?
Matthew 12:12 How much then is a man better than a sheep? Wherefore it is lawful to do well on the sabbath days.

Kal va-chomer. Basically, "If all of you would agree that you can work to help a sheep on the sabbath day (light) then it should be acceptable to help a man on the sabbath day." (heavy).

These are the types of things we have to be aware of if we want to interpret the scripture correctly. Most people would look at this and say, "see! he rejected and broke the sabbath!!! the jews and their foolish bondage and big, bad law!!! messiah knew a better and new law that we should follow, not the law of the old testament!!!"

This is (although I admit I use to think and say such things) the product of some one who is unlearned. And because from the very roots of the beginning of those called christians, we've had unlearned, gentile pagans instill this type of thinking into the scripture. And so has it grown into what we have today.

He was not preaching against Torah. He was actually for it. Just not in the way the corrupt Jewish leaders of that day taught it. We've been taught that true Torah is the way the Jewish leaders looked at it and interpreted it. And so we think Messiah (and Paul) were against it.

Really, Paul was against the dogma of new believers having to be burdened with that corrupt type of thinking to enslave them (that is, enslave them to the Jewish leaders and people like the "works of law" group).

Galatians 2:4 And that because of false brethren unawares brought in, who came in privily to spy out our liberty which we have in Moshiach Yahshua, that they might bring us into bondage:

What is the liberty? To be considered saved (denied in Acts 15:1) and free to be considered the seed of Abraham. NOT liberty from Torah. David says (a man after Yahweh's own heart who is no doubt greater than any NT believers):

Psalm 119:44 So shall I keep thy Torah continually for ever and ever.
Psalm 119:45 And I will walk at liberty: for I seek thy precepts.

Look at this attitude from some of the Pharisees:

Acts 15:5 But there rose up certain of the sect of the Pharisees which believed, saying, That it was needful to circumcise them, and to command them to keep the Torah of Moses.

This is enslaving the new believers to themselves through the Torah (not the Torah itself). This is the "burden" Peter spoke of a few verses later (true Torah perpetrated by added burdens and dogmas).

So what's going on are different interpretations of Torah and how it fits in with new believers who have not walked in a Torah lifestyle. Do we pressure and command and force them to keep it and even deny them their salvation if they currently do not? No.

Paul's theology was the "steps of Abraham" (and he is correct). Through Abraham's example:

Romans 3:31 Do we then make void Torah through faith? Let is not be: yea, we establish Torah.

How?

Romans 4:3 For what saith the scripture? Abraham believed God, and it was counted unto him for righteousness.
Romans 4:10 How was it then reckoned? when he was in circumcision, or in uncircumcision? Not in circumcision, but in uncircumcision.
Romans 4:11 And he received the sign of circumcision, a seal of the righteousness of the faith which he had yet being uncircumcised: that he might be the father of all them that believe, though they be not circumcised; that righteousness might be imputed unto them also:
Romans 4:12 And the father of circumcision to them who are not of the circumcision only, but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham, which he had being yet uncircumcised.

Abraham believed first and was considered righteous and took steps towards obeying Yahweh (circumcision in Genesis 17 and then more according to Genesis 26:5).

So to say Torah must be obeyed first before you are considered justified and righteous and the seed of Abraham is a lie. To say Messiah's righteousness as "YHWH our righteousness" is not good enough is blasphemy and goes directly against the scriptures. This is all Paul is saying. He is not fighting against Torah here. He is arguing against an interpretation of Torah. Same in Galatians. Same in many places.

And so yes, Messiah did, if we want to get technical, say we can break the Torah on certain circumstances. But in truth, this is not really breaking the Torah. This is judging righteously according to Torah, which is what Yahweh really desires. This is the spirit vs. the letter.

Sorry this took so long.
 
Hello Wavy:

I am still a little unclear. Are you saying that the Jews in particular, or people in general, are still supposed to follow the Law as set forth in the first 5 books? As you know, there are some laws there that seem somewhat barbaric to a 21st centurry westerner. Let's consider something like Exodus 31:14:

"Observe the Sabbath, because it is holy to you. Anyone who desecrates it must be put to death; whoever does any work on that day must be cut off from his people."

Are you saying that this Law is still in effect for some people? I have other questions, but I will ask them one at a time.
 
I was getting ready to make a thread on this. But I'll answer it with a simple scripture here:

Deuteronomy 1:16 And I charged your judges at that time, saying, Hear the causes between your brethren, and judge righteously between every man and his brother, and the stranger that is with him.

Things that deal with this must be determined by divinely appointed leaders of Israel who are made judges. You can't just see some one breaking the sabbath and chuck stones. There had to be a formal system of people involved under this theocracy. Not random nonsense. I also believe that this could only be done in the land anyway with all Israel dwelling in safety.

But for sure, there's no way we can do it now. Barbaric? Yes, it may seem barbaric (abortion is no better, however), but it is in Yahweh's Word. He didn't feel it it was wrong then and wouldn't now under the right conditions.


***EDIT***

Also, see Deuteronomy 16:18, Deuteronomy 19:17-18, Exodus 21:22 and Numbers 25:5. :wink:
 
Well said Wavy......the post had to be that long (actually it's not long enough) to adequately explain the Torah as "instruction". Law....and the usual Christian perception of the word "LAW" as being a shackles and chains burden are quite the misconception.
 
^^Right. Actually, Genesis-Revelation is TORAH. The whole bible is Torah.
 
Hello Wavy:

I understand that you are advocating adherence to the laws from the first 5 books, ensuring that the law are enforced in some kind of systematic formalized way. Does this apply to all human beings? I assume not.

Obviously, you are aware that such few governments would ever implement such laws. I want to be clear - I am not saying that the unwillingness of governments to enact such laws makes the laws "wrong".

Let me ask you if you agree with the following statement: "Most / many Christians erroneously think that Jesus' "fulfillment" of the Law means that the Law effectively has been done away with". I suspect that you will agree with this statement, but I will, of course, let you speak for yourself.

This whole topic is quite interesting to me - thanks for your answers. I will likely follow up with some questions / thoughts re the first 14 verses of Matthew 12.
 
Drew said:
Does this apply to all human beings? I assume not.

Yes. All human beings. No difference between believers, whether Jew or Gentile.

Leviticus 24:22 Ye shall have one manner of Torah, as well for the stranger, as for one of your own country: for I am YHWH your God.

Leviticus 19:33 And if a stranger sojourn with thee in your land, ye shall not vex him.
Leviticus 19:34 But the stranger that dwelleth with you shall be unto you as one born among you, and thou shalt love him as thyself; for ye were strangers in the land of Egypt: I am YHWH your God.

Galatians 3:28 There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Moshiach Yahshua.

Let me ask you if you agree with the following statement: "Most / many Christians erroneously think that Jesus' "fulfillment" of the Law means that the Law effectively has been done away with". I suspect that you will agree with this statement, but I will, of course, let you speak for yourself.

Yes, I agree perfectly.
 
Vic said:
If anyone cares to refute any of wavy's claims, go for it. But attack the post, not the poster, That is the rule. cj, two lengthy posts attacking the person, but not one verse in either post. :(

This line of public interrogation from members HAS TO STOP! :x

Forgive me Vic, but when a post begins with a general slandering of "antisemite" against all who may believe that Judaism is no longer a God-ordained practice, I can't help but think that the record should be put straight.

What Wavy did at the outset was to associate any who content with the thought that believers should practice Judaistic ways with being antisemtic.

This is a ugly thing to do, and should be pointed out for what it is.

My refute of his claims began with his perverse use of the word antisemitic.


In love,
cj
 
Alright, cj. How do you ask Vic to "forgive you", and then turn around and do the same thing again that he has to "forgive" you for?

Do you think "forgive me" changes the rest of the content?

Anyway, you obviosuly missed the point of everything, and still associate Torah with "Judaism" (which is wrong). You skipped the content to do the usual: talk, talk, talk...

Sorry, O cj, if things are running the way you designed them in your world...
 
Hello Wavy:

Here is my general take on the matter of "law". I suspect that it is probably not a view that is held in too many quarters (certainly not among many who participate in these forums). My views (which are in their formative stages) can be summarized as set out below. I probably will take a position that might be seen as "dismissive" of the Law and the of the inerrancy of Scripture. My intent is not to offend, but to forge a world-view that I can live with.

1. I propose that the "law" as penned in the OT does not really reflect God's specific intent. For example, I understand that there is a law (and I willingly stand to be corrected by those more knowledgeable than I) to the effect that a woman who is raped may be forced to marry her attacker (Deut. 22:28). I propose that the "law" reflects a very imperfect revelation from God to man. The law, in a sense captured God's holiness but with some mistakes. "Seeing through a glass darkly", the OT authors really only captured the general truth that God is holy and that sin in general is real. However, there were some mistakes. As you can plainly see, I am not an inerrantist by any stretch.

2. Even if the "law" as written down indeed reflects the true intent of God, Jesus tells us (e.g. in Matthew 12:1-14) that "law", as specifically manifested by a set of "rules", is really only an approximate guide to human behaviour.

3. The overarching principle that should guide all our actions is the so-called "great commandment": "Teacher, which is the greatest commandment in the Law?" 37Jesus replied: " 'Love the Lord your God with all your heart and with all your soul and with all your mind.' 38This is the first and greatest commandment. 39And the second is like it: 'Love your neighbor as yourself.' 40All the Law and the Prophets hang on these two commandments."

So in the end, we really have to rely on the admittedly vague "principle of love" to guide our actions. I realize that I am a "product of my time" and perhaps I cannot leap out of my context and "see the wisdom" of such apparently harsh and vindictive rules. This is always a possibility.
 
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