Bible Study Luke 4:28-30

[Brother Mike]

I have no idea why you keep making this point. ?

You mentioned it again for one, and if one is not true about Isaiah's mission, then they all are not true. I'll talk about healing the blind then.

 

[Deborah13]

You mentioned it again for one, and if one is not true about Isaiah's mission, then they all are not true. I'll talk about healing the blind then.

Still don't understand. Don't worry about it though, I not going to.
God Bless

 

[Brother Mike]

Still don't understand. Don't worry about it though, I not going to.
God Bless

Glad that is sorted.

 

[selihah]

Is it possible that Jesus could have been quoting from more than one scripture in Isaiah?
Isa 42:7 To open the blind eyes, to bring out the prisoners from the prison, and them that sit in darkness out of the prison house.
Isa 58:6 Is not this the fast that I have chosen? to loose the bands of wickedness, to undo the heavy burdens, and to let the oppressed go free, and that ye break every yoke?

Is it possible? I suppose he could have. But the trouble I have with that is cherry picking only certain sentences out of an entire book or chapter. Taking them out of context and developing entirely new and different meanings from them.

When I read several chapters of Isaiah. I find in Isaiah 41:8 that it is Israel who YHVH declares as his servant. That being the case I think it is Israel who YHVH calls to righteouness, and he will hold their hand, and will keep them, and give them for a covenant of the people, for a light to the nations.

Therefore I see Israel as the one who is supposed to fullfill Isaiah 42:7. To top it off the reason I think the servant being spoken of is Israel and no other. Is because reading further God also calls this servant 'whom he has sent' "deaf and blind" in Isaiah 42:19 because he has not been obedient.


edit: sorry had all my verses mixed up. all straight now

 

[Deborah13]

But the trouble I have with that is cherry picking only certain sentences out of an entire book or chapter. Taking them out of context and developing entirely new and different meanings from them.

The scriptures were not written as verses and chapters, men did that. I understand your concern, it is something that most of us are also concerned about.
In Luke you say that the people were upset about the way He used Isaiah, but they took them as gracious words, so I don't see that is why they got upset.
Isaiah 42:1-3, is repeated in Matthew 12:18-20, and obviously is speaking about the Messiah.

Therefore I see Israel as the one who is supposed to fullfill Isaiah 42:7

So the prophecies that were given to Israel we see are fulfilled through the Son of Man, born as a son of Israel. I fail to see any contradiction or problem with this. Mission accomplished through the Messiah.

Is because reading further God also calls this servant 'whom he has sent' "deaf and blind" in Isaiah 42:19 because he has not been obedient.

To be sure this is a difficult verse. I have find many times, when there are questions being asked, it is difficult to know who is asking, are they asking for themselves or are they stating questions that are/would be asked by someone else? Paul, does this sometimes when he makes his arguments. para. "Shall we keep on sinning the grace should abound?" Are they rhetorical in nature? Do they give understanding or strength to an argument?
Young's Literal Translation, gives a break after verse 17, signifying where the translators felt the direct object or subject changes.
Isa 42:18 Ye deaf, hear; and ye blind, look to see.
Isa 42:19 Who is blind but My servant? And deaf as My messenger I send? Who is blind as he who is at peace, Yea, blind, as the servant of Jehovah?
Isa 42:20 Seeing many things, and thou observest not, Opening ears, and he heareth not.
So all I can understand here is that the Lord is not now speaking of the same 'he' as in the beginning verses. Here the 'he' are the individual people of the nation of Israel who's eyes and ears are not open to see and hear the Lord. I would also think that He is referring to the religious leaders in particular as the servants and messangers that He sent to the people. The ones who would not listen to the prophets.
Mat 23:13 `Woe to you, Scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! because ye shut up the reign of the heavens before men, for ye do not go in, nor those going in do ye suffer to enter.
Mat 23:15 `Woe to you, Scribes and Pharisees, hypocrites! because ye go round the sea and the dry land to make one proselyte, and whenever it may happen--ye make him a son of gehenna twofold more than yourselves.
Mat 23:28 so also ye outwardly indeed do appear to men righteous, and within ye are full of hypocrisy and lawlessness.
Mat 23:30 and say, If we had been in the days of our fathers, we would not have been partakers with them in the blood of the prophets.
Mat 23:31 So that ye testify to yourselves, that ye are sons of them who did murder the prophets;
Mat 23:34 `Because of this, lo, I send to you prophets, and wise men, and scribes, and of them ye will kill and crucify, and of them ye will scourge in your synagogues, and will pursue from city to city;

 

[th1b.taylor]

Is it possible? I suppose he could have. But the trouble I have with that is cherry picking only certain sentences out of an entire book or chapter. Taking them out of context and developing entirely new and different meanings from them.

Agreed, I see that nasty habit as being much more recent in origin. And Paul/Saul was/is a scholar of scholars when it comes to the Bible.

 

[th1b.taylor]

Therefore I see Israel as the one who is supposed to fullfill Isaiah 42:7. To top it off the reason I think the servant being spoken of is Israel and no other. Is because reading further God also calls this servant 'whom he has sent' "deaf and blind" in Isaiah 42:19 because he has not been obedient.

It really blows holes in this New Covenant Heresy of the "New" Israel, doesn't it? This, I believe, has much to do with why Satan keeps the Ear Ticklers away from the Bible Jesus and Paul taught from.

 

[th1b.taylor]

Therefore I see Israel as the one who is supposed to fullfill Isaiah 42:7. To top it off the reason I think the servant being spoken of is Israel and no other. Is because reading further God also calls this servant 'whom he has sent' "deaf and blind" in Isaiah 42:19 because he has not been obedient.

It really blows holes in this New Covenant Heresy of the "New" Israel, doesn't it? This, I believe, has much to do with why Satan keeps the Ear Ticklers away from the Bible Jesus and Paul taught from.