No, PAUL said belief is not a work. I'm simply quoting him:
Now to the one who works, his wages are not counted as a gift but as his due. 5 And to the one who does not work but believes in him who justifies the ungodly, his faith is counted as righteousness Rom 4:4-5 ESV
Paul said belief is not a work. Right there. It's what Scripture says. That settles it.
There is no verse where Paul said "belief is not a work" It does not exist except in some people's imagination. For in the context, Abraham is an example of one who did not do works of merit, but had an obedient belief, Heb 11:8. So "not of works" excludes only works of merit and not all types of works for belief is a work as seen by Abraham's obedient faith. The context of verse 4 shows that the worker Paul is talking about is doing works of merit trying to make his reward of debt and not of grace. So the works Paul is considering in the context are works of merit. You are assuming 'not of works' excludes all works of all types but you have not proven that. You create a contradiction with Rom 6, Jn 6 that shows belief is a work, obedient works are BEFORE salvation.
Heymickey80 said:
Nope. As we've discussed, many times obedience involves not doing something. When the Lord tells you to stop working -- do you keep working? No? Then obedience of itself means nothing about working for salvation, doing something for a wage of righteousness or salvation.
It was an argument you made but never proved. Obedience is doing what was commanded not just thinking about doing..Heb 11:8 "
By faith Abraham, when he was called to go out into a place which he should after receive for an inheritance, obeyed; and he went out, not knowing whither he went. " How did Abraham obey that call? By just
thinking about leaving? He obeyed by doing, by leaving.
Heymickey80 said:
Paul also opposes the two here:
Israel who pursued a law that would lead to righteousness did not succeed in reaching that law. 32 Why? Because they did not pursue it by faith, but as if it were based on works. Rom 9:31-32 ESV
Rom 6 and Rom 10 are just two chapters in Romans were Paul put obedience
BEFORE salvation and Paul does not contradict himself.
Rom 9:32 Paul is saying the Jews were keeping the law not by faith but as a matter of works of merit. They were trying to earn salvation making it a debt God would owe them. "For they stumbled at that stumblingstone" the Jews were lost for they rejected Christ and would not have an obedient faith in Him. Moving into chapter 10 Paul is in sorrow that his brethren in the flesh are lost, Rom 10:1 But in Rom 10:3 Paul explains how they can be saved: "
For they being ignorant of God's righteousness, and going about to establish their own righteousness, have not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God."
The Jews were lost for they were "
going about to establish their own righteousness" that is, they were doing works of merit as Paul said in Rom 9:32. They could be saved if they would quit doing those works of merit and "
submit themselves unto the righteousness of God", that is, obey God's commands. So here in Rom 10:3 Paul makes a clear contrasts between two different types of works; 1 ) works of merit the Jews were doing that do not save and 2) submitting/obeying God's comands that save those Jews. So here is further proof that "not of works" in Rom 4:5 does not, cannot exclude all works for it clearly cannot exclude submitting/obeying God's righteousness (commandmetns). So the context ending in Rom 9 and into Rom 10 proves my point not yours.
Heymickey80 said:
And yet Paul doesn't talk about any of these specifics. It would put words in Paul's mouth to do so with his words.
You are trying to think for Paul. Paul knew there were different types of works. We just say a contrast he made between two different types of works in Rom 10:3. And I will keep posting this point for you will not deal with it: Rom 4:4 "
Now to him that worketh is the reward not reckoned of grace, but of debt." The type of work Paul is saying the 'worker' does are works of merit, for works of merit is when one works to keep God's law perfectly whereby his reward is of debt and not of grace. Obedience to God does not earn salvation making it of debt for Abraham was obedient, Heb 11:8,17 but he sinned therefore by his sinning his salvation must be of grace and could never be of debt.
Heymickey80 said:
You can't assume something is excluded when it's not mentioned. The context points out, "when a man works". It's work. No qualification.
But Rom 4:4 tells us what type of work the worker does...works of merit trying to make his salvation of debt and not of grace. Since belief is a work, Jn 6:27-29 then 'not of works' cannot exlcude the work f believing for that creates a contradiction. Obedience to Gods will does not earn salvation. Abraham had an obedient faith but it could never make his reward not of grace but of debt for he sinned therefore was in need of grace.
Heymickey80 said:
As mentioned a number of times before, obedience is not directly related to working, but to submission.
And submission is doing something. Again from Rom 10:3 for the Jews were not saved for they had not submitted themselves unto the righteousness of God, that is, they had not obeyed God's righteous commands.
Heymickey80 said:
No, I don't. As you have once again confused me with your opinions, the contradiction you point out is with your opinion, not with my viewpoint.
It's clear that once faith exists, obedience results from the very existence of faith.
But that's just it: obedience results, it's not the cause of faith, and it's not detached from faith.
Paul points to the faith as being for salvation (Ep 2:8-9), and for righteousness (Rom 4:4-5). Obedience results.
Paul never uses "works of merit". It's not Scriptural.
Rom 10:9,10 "
That if thou shalt confess with thy mouth the Lord Jesus, and shalt believe in thine heart that God hath raised him from the dead, thou shalt be saved. For with the heart man believeth unto righteousness; and with the mouth confession is made unto salvation."
To be saved one must do the obedient works of believing unto righeousness and confessing with the mouth unto salvation. It says unto righteousness/salvation not because of righeousness/salvation. So the works of beliving and confessing with the mouth come BEFORE salvation.
Rom 6:16-18 Paul says you serve either one of two masters, you either serve : 1) sin unto death of 2) obedeince unto righteousness. I serve #2 yet your theology has ruled out 32 for you.
Paul goe son to say the Romans had obeye from the heart that form of doctrine, then being freed from sin. Again obedince came BEFORE being freed from sins/justified/saved.
The three texts of Rom 10:9,10 and Rom 6:16-18 and Rom 10:3 show you are creating a contradiction with what Paul has said for Paul INCLUDED obedient works BEFORE salvation in these texts.
And obedience is an act, it is doing something and not just a mental activity.
In Rom 4:4 Paul does not use the exact phrase "works of merit", but that is the type of work he is describing in that verse when one works to try and merit his salvation making it not of grace. In Rom 4:4 Paul is not saying the worker does works of God, works of righeousness, works of the flesh, works of Satan for Paul is not talking about these type of works.
Heymikcey80 said:
So you think the Resurrection is hypothetical?
Jesus was raised.
No, didn't say that. In fact I wonder where you got that from. Did you read what I said? I said God is responsible no matter the denials, for what He created. And He has vowed He shall fix it.
Now these are not hypotheticals. They're real. What's real, God has made. What God has promised, that's no hypothetical.
It's long been a mistake to attribute responsibility to only one cause; when in fact there are numerous causes all with responsibility for what comes about
Now back to the issue. The issue is:
1- Of course God could create man without greater resistance to sin! He's going to remake us that way, it'd be shallow to think He couldn't do what He's going to do!
2- God's omnipotent, isn't He?
Neither 1 nor 2 are hypothetical. That obliterates the argument that this is hypothetical. God is real. His promises are real, His Creation is real. So God is really responsible.
You were making up a hypothetical question in trying to prove one of your points. Saying God hypothetically could have made man better resistant to sinning. But since God did not hypothetically create man more resistant to sin God has repsonsibility for man's sinning. And you hypothetical is just blaming God.
You posted "I said God is responsible no matter the denials, for what He created."
What God created in the six days in Genesis 1 is called "very good" Gen 1:31. God created man good and not defective as you seem to think. God gave man a free will to make choices but since man abused that gift from God and chose of his own will to to evil God is not repsonsible for those abuses man made with his free will. If you raise a son in a good, godly and moral way yet later in your son's adult life he choose to rob a bank and shoot people. Is that choice he made your fault and responsibility? No, and choices man make are not God's fault - Adam choosing of hisown will to eat of the forbidden tree is not God's fault or rsponsibility.
You are blaming God and making God responsible for man's sins and I cannot even take this argument seriously. I can only hope Calvinist visitors to this page read your remarks in blaming God and it will open their eyes to the horrible theology of Calvinism putting blame on God. I have always said and will continue to say the bottom line problem with Calvinism is it blames God for man's sins and man being lost and you are absolutely proving that for me.