T
Terral
Guest
Where Is Your "One Gospel" Presentation??
Hi Thessalonian:
The Gospel of the Kingdom was never accepted by Israel in Jerusalem. Did we notice that Jerusalem was leveled in 70 AD over their ‘transgression’ (Romans 11:11)?? How could that kingdom spread to the whole world if Israel did not accept it as a nation? They crucified the King; remember? The Twelve carried the Gospel of the Kingdom to gather the ‘bride’ (John 3:29), but God began gathering the ‘body of Christ’ through Paul’s Gospel, which is still in force today. Peter told them to “Repent†(Acts 3:19), but did they? No. Do we give the Holy Spirit to one another by the laying of hands today like for the ‘gospel of the kingdom (Acts 8:17, Acts 19:6)? No. That Gospel message with the water baptism for forgiveness is not Paul’s Gospel that contains His shed blood for forgiveness (Ephesians 1:7). The two doctrinal outlines of the Opening Post contain directly opposing doctrinal precepts, which is the reason these two gospel messages ARE DIFFERENT. If you ever find anything errant in either of those outlines, then feel free to “quote me >>†and point out those errors using Scripture. Otherwise this side of the Debate sees no reason to change anything, because what is given above is “the truth.â€Â
Quote the entire Bible if you like, but that challenges nothing about my ‘two gospel’ hypothesis in the Opening Post. The fact that two sets of doctrinal precepts even exist is evidence that my hypothesis is truth. Do we see sins forgiven by water (Mark 1:4-5, Acts 2:38) AND Christ’s shed blood (Ephesians 1:7)? Yes. My outlines place those components in Gospel #1 (water) and Gospel #2 (blood). Do we see the Spirit given in two different ways in the New Testament? Yes. Gospel #1 shows the laying of hands (Acts 8:17, Acts 19:6) and Gospel #2 for today shows us receiving the Spirit by “hearing with faith†(Galatians 3:2).
Paul has just ‘one baptism’ (Ephesians 4:5) done by the “one Spirit†(1 Corinthians 12:13) and the “Gospel of the Kingdom†has three separate baptisms of the Father (John’s for forgiveness = Acts 19:3), of the Son (name of the Lord Jesus; Acts 8:16, Acts 19:5) AND the third and final laying of hands for the Holy Spirit (Acts 8:17, Acts 19:6). My doctrinal outlines shows the multiple baptisms for the gospel of the Kingdom under Gospel #1 and the ‘one baptism’ for Paul’s Gospel in Gospel #2. How do you explain these seeming contradictions in your ‘one gospel’ theory? The answer is that you do not ever provide that for us. Instead you continue asking question after question like that is going to prove something.
Peter, John and James are said to be ‘sons of the bridal chamber’ (Mark 2:19) and John the Baptist calls them the ‘bride’ (John 3:29). Paul calls those believing his gospel “Christ’s body†(1 Corinthians 12:27) and he never uses the term “bride†(numphe #3565) even once in any of his letters. Christ says that the ‘bride’ is under the Law, until heaven and earth pass away (Matthew 5:18) to which James agrees (James 2:10). However, Paul says that the members of our mystery church (Ephesians 5:32) are under grace and not under law (Romans 6:14). How does your ‘one gospel’ theory explain the fact that the bride is under the Law AND the body is under grace and not under law? Your questions are not answering any of the contradictions of your ‘one gospel’ assumption that has yet to be even presented.
James teaches that the kingdom bride is justified by works and not by faith alone (James 2:24). Paul teaches that the body of Christ is justified by faith apart from works (Romans 4:4-6). I show that James is teaching kingdom doctrine to the ‘bride’ saved by Gospel #1 AND that Paul is addressing members of his mystery ‘dispensation of God’s grace’ (Ephesians 3:2) saved by Gospel #2. How do you solve these seeming contradictions?
Heh . . . Keep asking your questions, because everyone can already see you cannot write two paragraphs of commentary teaching your own ‘one gospel’ theory. Keep up the good work and,
Thank you for writing,
In Christ Jesus,
Terral
Hi Thessalonian:
Thessalonian >> So the gospel that Christ preached was not really to be preached to the whole world even though he said it was to be? (snip Matthew 26 and Mark 13 quotes).
The Gospel of the Kingdom was never accepted by Israel in Jerusalem. Did we notice that Jerusalem was leveled in 70 AD over their ‘transgression’ (Romans 11:11)?? How could that kingdom spread to the whole world if Israel did not accept it as a nation? They crucified the King; remember? The Twelve carried the Gospel of the Kingdom to gather the ‘bride’ (John 3:29), but God began gathering the ‘body of Christ’ through Paul’s Gospel, which is still in force today. Peter told them to “Repent†(Acts 3:19), but did they? No. Do we give the Holy Spirit to one another by the laying of hands today like for the ‘gospel of the kingdom (Acts 8:17, Acts 19:6)? No. That Gospel message with the water baptism for forgiveness is not Paul’s Gospel that contains His shed blood for forgiveness (Ephesians 1:7). The two doctrinal outlines of the Opening Post contain directly opposing doctrinal precepts, which is the reason these two gospel messages ARE DIFFERENT. If you ever find anything errant in either of those outlines, then feel free to “quote me >>†and point out those errors using Scripture. Otherwise this side of the Debate sees no reason to change anything, because what is given above is “the truth.â€Â
Thessalonian >> Please answer a question directly for a change instead of crying about how I have not addressed your topic or have not quoted scripture (even though I did).
Quote the entire Bible if you like, but that challenges nothing about my ‘two gospel’ hypothesis in the Opening Post. The fact that two sets of doctrinal precepts even exist is evidence that my hypothesis is truth. Do we see sins forgiven by water (Mark 1:4-5, Acts 2:38) AND Christ’s shed blood (Ephesians 1:7)? Yes. My outlines place those components in Gospel #1 (water) and Gospel #2 (blood). Do we see the Spirit given in two different ways in the New Testament? Yes. Gospel #1 shows the laying of hands (Acts 8:17, Acts 19:6) and Gospel #2 for today shows us receiving the Spirit by “hearing with faith†(Galatians 3:2).
Paul has just ‘one baptism’ (Ephesians 4:5) done by the “one Spirit†(1 Corinthians 12:13) and the “Gospel of the Kingdom†has three separate baptisms of the Father (John’s for forgiveness = Acts 19:3), of the Son (name of the Lord Jesus; Acts 8:16, Acts 19:5) AND the third and final laying of hands for the Holy Spirit (Acts 8:17, Acts 19:6). My doctrinal outlines shows the multiple baptisms for the gospel of the Kingdom under Gospel #1 and the ‘one baptism’ for Paul’s Gospel in Gospel #2. How do you explain these seeming contradictions in your ‘one gospel’ theory? The answer is that you do not ever provide that for us. Instead you continue asking question after question like that is going to prove something.
Peter, John and James are said to be ‘sons of the bridal chamber’ (Mark 2:19) and John the Baptist calls them the ‘bride’ (John 3:29). Paul calls those believing his gospel “Christ’s body†(1 Corinthians 12:27) and he never uses the term “bride†(numphe #3565) even once in any of his letters. Christ says that the ‘bride’ is under the Law, until heaven and earth pass away (Matthew 5:18) to which James agrees (James 2:10). However, Paul says that the members of our mystery church (Ephesians 5:32) are under grace and not under law (Romans 6:14). How does your ‘one gospel’ theory explain the fact that the bride is under the Law AND the body is under grace and not under law? Your questions are not answering any of the contradictions of your ‘one gospel’ assumption that has yet to be even presented.
James teaches that the kingdom bride is justified by works and not by faith alone (James 2:24). Paul teaches that the body of Christ is justified by faith apart from works (Romans 4:4-6). I show that James is teaching kingdom doctrine to the ‘bride’ saved by Gospel #1 AND that Paul is addressing members of his mystery ‘dispensation of God’s grace’ (Ephesians 3:2) saved by Gospel #2. How do you solve these seeming contradictions?
Heh . . . Keep asking your questions, because everyone can already see you cannot write two paragraphs of commentary teaching your own ‘one gospel’ theory. Keep up the good work and,
Thank you for writing,
In Christ Jesus,
Terral