I asked this:
"Please provide an explantation of what this means.
It does sound as though sinning after salvation means one wasn't born again. So, what does it mean?"
John is explaining how we can know if a person is in Christ, or not in Christ.
No, he's not.
1Jo 3:4-10
Everyone who makes a practice of sinning also practices lawlessness; sin is lawlessness. You know that he appeared in order to take away sins, and in him there is no sin. No one who abides in him keeps on sinning; no one who keeps on sinning has either seen him or known him. Little children, let no one deceive you. Whoever practices righteousness is righteous, as he is righteous. Whoever makes a practice of sinning is of the devil, for the devil has been sinning from the beginning. The reason the Son of God appeared was to destroy the works of the devil. No one born of God makes a practice of sinning, for God’s seed abides in him, and he cannot keep on sinning because he has been born of God. By this it is evident who are the children of God, and who are the children of the devil: whoever does not practice righteousness is not of God, nor is the one who does not love his brother.
John is saying, in very clear language, that a person who practices sin is not born of God. The person who does not practice righteousness is not of God, nor the one who does not love his brother.
Nope. He's not saying that either.
Most importantly, many people who claim to believe in Jesus as the Christ do not actually believe that He appeared to destroy the works of the devil. They claim that Christ saved them, yet they deny that He saved them from slavery to sin. It is these people who are liars and are still enslaved to sin.
And, no, he didn't say that either.
v.8 - No one born of God makes a practice of sinning, for God’s seed abides in him, and he cannot keep on sinning because he has been born of God.
The explanation:
"born of God" refers to one regenerated, and has therefore become a "new creature" per 2 Co 5:17.
The reason one does not "make a practice of sinning" is because of the next phrase; "for God's seed abides in him". Who is this? It is the Holy Spirit.
Recall from 1 Peter 1:23 - For you have been born again, not of perishable seed, but of imperishable, through the living and enduring word of God.
So, we've been born again (regenerated) of imperishable seed. Seed that cannot perish.
All this refers to our NEW nature, which is why Paul describes believers as being "new creatures" in 2 Cor 5:17.
So, by being born again, we now have 2 natures within us; the original human nature, or sin nature, from which we sin, AND the new nature, from which we CANNOT sin.
Where would one think the Holy Spirit dwells within us? The sin nature, or the new nature? It makes utterly no sense to think He resides in our sin nature. He dwells in our new nature.
Now, Paul commands believers to be filled with the Holy Spirit (Eph 5:18) and to walk by means of the Holy Spirit (Gal 5:16). In the next verse, Paul describes the battle between our 2 natures:
17 For the flesh desires what is contrary to the Spirit, and the Spirit what is contrary to the flesh. They are in conflict with each other, so that you are not to do whatever you want.
Paul also commands believers to stop grieving the Holy Spirit (Eph 4:30) and stop quenching the Spirit (1 Thess 5:18).
Only when the believer is in fellowship and is filled with the Spirit and walking by His means will he not be able to sin. It's an impossibility, because he is functioning from the new nature.
However, WHEN the believer is out of fellowship and is either grieving or quenching the Spirit, that means the believer is functioning from the sin nature, NOT the new nature.
So 1 Jn 3:9 is a statement about how NOT to sin. Function from the new nature.
I have given a thorough explanation of this verse. If there is disagreement with any of it, please address each point made and explain why and how my points are not biblical.
Thanks.