Walpole
Member
- Sep 9, 2018
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It should not be forgotten that the progenitors of Protestantism themselves upheld, taught and established rules and laws for the annulment of marriages. Simply Google John Calvin’s "Marriage Ordinance of 1546 in Geneva" or Beza's "Tract on Annulment and Divorce in 1569" for example.I understand civil, secular annulments. Marriage is a contract. Dissolution of the contract is divorce. Declaring it null is an annulment.
I don’t get marriages that resulted in kids and a secular divorce resulting in a church annulment. Or why that should be necessary?
The Church has authority over all her Sacraments, which includes marriage. Only she can declare the conditions which must be fulfilled in order for marriage to be valid. Conversely only she can declare invalid that which does not fulfill the conditions for marriage. With an annulment, the Church is stating one of the factors which constitutes a marriage was missing. It does not create or destroy that which was. Rather, it states that something was not from the beginning. In other words, when the Church makes a declaration of nullity (annulment), she is stating a marriage - the way she defines and understands it - never actually occurred.
Annulments are as old as marriage itself. For example, in Genesis 12, we read where Pharaoh married Sarai, but yet Sarai was actually already married to Abram...
"But the Lord struck Pharaoh and his house with great plagues because of Sarai, Abram's wife. Then Pharaoh called Abram and said, What is this you have done to me? Why did you not tell me that she was your wife? Why did you say, 'She is my sister,' so that I took her for my wife? Now then, here is your wife, take her and go. Pharaoh commanded his men concerning him; and they escorted him away, with his wife and all that belonged to him. (Genesis 12:17-20)
--> Was Pharaoh validly married to Sarai?
---> Did Pharaoh have to divorce Sarai?