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Redirectionalism

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partial preterist amil. the early church believed in literal reign of Christ on the earth per Justin martyr. he mentions that clearly.
 
"Therefore, I believe the Day of Pentecost occurred after the "new heaven and new earth" part of Rev 21:1 had already been fulfilled. Think about it. Suddenly, normal people with a decent heart had access to something absolutely amazing that was virtually unheard of before the Day of Pentecost. That, to me, is the New Heaven and New Earth."

The New Heavens and Earth, the defeat of Satan come after the Millennium, right now your are inconsistent and your system is contradicting itself. EDITED
 
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Jesus has not come to Gather His people at the resurrection!

When He does, every eye will see Him

The resurrection of the dead has not occurred.

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17 And their message will spread like cancer. Hymenaeus and Philetus are of this sort, 18 who have strayed concerning the truth, saying that the resurrection is already past; and they overthrow the faith of some. 2 Timothy 2:17-18"

{From Don} Well done JLB I agree with you 100%. However, I also believe if you are looking at Jesus in the resurrection, second coming or not, your corruptible body is dead for you to see Him.
 
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Too bad they did not have the King James Version.:chin
yeah the greek and well closeness to the man whom himself had the vision must make it bad too. remember the chialism actually comes from judiasm. the Chassidic jews believe in thousand year reing of the moshiac.
 
"But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits [that is #1]; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming [that is #2]. Then cometh the end [that is #3]" (1 Corinthians 15:23-24)

You see, they are three separate events".

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JBL "12 And this shall be the plague with which the Lord will strike all the people who fought against Jerusalem: Their flesh shall dissolve while they stand on their feet, Their eyes shall dissolve in their sockets, And their tongues shall dissolve in their mouths. Zechariah 14:12

Did this happen to the Romans in 70 AD.

Were all the Romans soldiers destroyed in this manner?"

From Don: You guys have to much here to make any progress. Anyway, "Jerusalem" here refers to the Church and those that are dissolved are those who where anti-christ. Look up the word please. There is a lot of stuff out that has to show edited there is no 1000 years between the resurrection for beheaded peoples. both resurrections happen at the same time. And there is no literal Beast with 10 heads either.
 
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JBL "
17 And their message will spread like cancer. Hymenaeus and Philetus are of this sort, 18 who have strayed concerning the truth, saying that the resurrection is already past; and they overthrow the faith of some. 2 Timothy 2:17-18"

{from donald perry} JBL has a point. You are in big trouble now dude. What are you going to do now? The Resurrection is not past, at least as far as I am concerned. I am still sinning. After the resurrection there is no more sinners. At some point you need to start redirecting yourself back to 25 AD. You are in a post AD 70 / Resurrection world, you have no more Bible, you are outside Christianity! Come back Dan, come back before its too late!
 
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I amil. post mil means that the end is for some time after, show me where the end of occurred? and the judgement? it would if literally taken have to be in 1070 ad.

I also try to fit it what is possible literally but since you said the chialism is literal then

Why not use the word “millennialism” like a normal person? :chin

I believe a “thousand years” means exactly the length of time a “thousand years” means in the other parts of the Old and New Testaments, which is, it could mean any length of time. (Psalms 90:4; Eccl 6:6; 1 Peter 3:8)

You can read my interpretation methodology in post #144 above, which is summarized here:

"To me, the New Testament makes perfect sense if I take everything literally that can be reasonably taken that way."

I believe I know where you are coming from. I personally have come to the conclusion that when debating dispensationalist types one has to be careful not to allow them an avenue to sidetrack the theme. Otherwise, they will never attempt to explain their own position (which they can’t.)

Hear me out. There was this rabbi name Rashi, who just happened to be 30 years old, exactly 1000 years after the destruction of Jerusalem in 70 A.D. That is correct: Rashi was born on February 22, 1040 and died on July 13, 1105. Guess what he "preached?" That the suffering servant of Isaiah 53 was NOT Jesus, but Israel! One example:

"Even after Rabbi Shlomo Yitzhaki (Rashi as he is commonly known), decided that this particular passage referred to Israel and not the Messiah, his views were hotly disputed by other rabbis, like Rabbi Moses ben Maimon (known by his shortened name, Rambam). He and others understood this passage to refer to the Messiah, not to Israel. Yet, on the Messiah Truth website, it is asserted that Christians lying by stating that this apparent new view of the Suffering Servant was made up by Rashi. However, the facts speak for themselves and there is ample evidence that prior to Rashi, the normative viewpoint among Jewry was that the Suffering Servant was indeed referring to the Messiah." [from: "Is Israel the Suffering Servant of Isaiah 53?", at: http://www.scribd.com/doc/11247188/Is-Israel-the-Suffering-Servant-of-Isaiah-53]

There are many, many references to Rashi, all saying the exact same thing. I have not delved into his written words that much; but the fact that he was 30 years old exactly 1000 years after the destruction of Jerusalem, and he endeavored to rewrite all times and laws, I found more than a mere coincidence.

It gives me pause to reflect that maybe a prophet, like Daniel, may have written an open-ended prophecy, like Daniel 7:25-27, just like John in Rev 20; with few details except those of the defeat of Satan, the final judgement, and the everlasting dominion of Christ.

There is a minor problem, however. Satan was loosed for a "little season." I decided the best way to interpret that was the way it was interpreted in the rest of the scripture other than the Relevation: Here it is:

[Blank] :cool2


I amil. post mil means that the end is for some time after, show me where the end of occurred? and the judgement? it would if literally taken have to be in 1070 ad.

ok so the rcc and the church in this thousand years of peace and binding of satan didn't deceive men to kill jewish Christians and also other heinous acts that sadly happened then? what about the manner of additional doctrines that the rcc added in that are questionable in that period? what about the first crusade?

which occurred in that time frame?

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Crusades

whom was the primary church then? the rcc.

so how could the church be so godly and then go south in twenty years?

I don’t understand your question(s). I will make a general statement that Satan was only bound so he could not deceive the nations for a long period of time. That does not mean that evil actions of men were eliminated; only that Satan could not have dominion for a long time: until Christianity was established.

Recall when Jerusalem (Babylon the Great) was destroyed in 70 A.D., John prophesied:

" . . . for by thy sorceries were all nations deceived." (Rev 18:23)

Obviously it was not the city that was deceiving the nations, but the leadership, which adhered to Pharisaic Judaism. Jesus called them "sorcerers." That should tell you something.

Many people think Judaism adheres to the Torah: the five books of Moses. But the oral tradition of the Rabbis replaced the Law of Moses [the Law was good] long before Christ. Christ spoke of the ungodliness of their tradition many times. Check it out. This is only one of many examples:

". . . Why do ye also transgress the commandment of God by your tradition?" (Matthew 15:3)

What about Satan?

". . . [Satan was bound so that] he should deceive the nations no more, till the thousand years should be fulfilled: and after that he must be loosed a little season . . .[then he went] out to deceive the nations which are in the four quarters of the earth. . ." (Rev 20:3,8)

Sounds like the same bunch, doesn't it? Recall this from Isaiah:

"Wherefore hear the word of the Lord, ye scornful men, that rule this people which is in Jerusalem. Because ye have said, We have made a covenant with death, and with hell are we at agreement;: (Isaiah 28:14-15)

It is the same bunch, promoting their vicious religion called Pharisaic Judaism; which, by the way, has nothing to do with decency or Godliness whatsoever: but POWER!

Recall:

"And they went up on the breadth of the earth, and compassed the camp of the saints about, and the beloved city: and fire came down from God out of heaven, and devoured them." (Rev 20:9)

The "breadth of the earth" means the entire earth: not old Jerusalem; and the camp of the saints and the beloved city are situated on heavenly mount Sion, and is also known as the Church.

Recall that Christianity spread (against all “odds,” IMO) until around the mid-1800’s when Darby, and his proselytes, like Scofield, starting deceiving Christians into believing that it was the right of Jews to rule the world, not Christians. Look what has happened since: an all out assault on Christianity! Those beasts will not even let our little children pray in school.

Dan
 
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"Therefore, I believe the Day of Pentecost occurred after the "new heaven and new earth" part of Rev 21:1 had already been fulfilled. Think about it. Suddenly, normal people with a decent heart had access to something absolutely amazing that was virtually unheard of before the Day of Pentecost. That, to me, is the New Heaven and New Earth."

The New Heavens and Earth, the defeat of Satan come after the Millennium, right now your are inconsistent and your system is contradicting itself. Thank you Jesus I am not a Preterist ... like other men.

Donald, you left out almost all of what I wrote. Could you please put my comments into context, before casting aspersions?

[Dispensationalists are almost hopelessly lost. Pray for them.]
 
"But every man in his own order: Christ the firstfruits [that is #1]; afterward they that are Christ's at his coming [that is #2]. Then cometh the end [that is #3]" (1 Corinthians 15:23-24)

You see, they are three separate events".


From Don: Yes and no, but you have a problem because you are on the inconsistent train, and JLB is right to slam you for it.

Okay, Don. You cast your aspersion. Now explain yourself. I am awaiting eagerly for your explanation.
 
JBL "
17 And their message will spread like cancer. Hymenaeus and Philetus are of this sort, 18 who have strayed concerning the truth, saying that the resurrection is already past; and they overthrow the faith of some. 2 Timothy 2:17-18"

{from donald perry} JBL has a point. You are in big trouble now dude. What are you going to do now? The Resurrection is not past, at least as far as I am concerned. I am still sinning. After the resurrection there is no more sinners. At some point you need to start redirecting yourself back to 25 AD. You are in a post AD 70 / Resurrection world, you have no more Bible, you are outside Christianity! Come back Dan, come back before its too late!

Don, this is borderline craziness. Please explain to us how the 'first resurrection" of 70 A.D., clearly explained to exclude peons (or, grasshoppers, if you prefer) like you and me (unless you have been beheaded recently, and I will not rule that out,) was in conflict with what Paul warned Timothy about many years earlier?

Jeesh!
 
show us the errors don

I have too much on my plate right now.

"And whomever marries a divorced person commits adultery."

The word should be someone put-away.

If marriage to a divorced person was committing adultery than the Books of Moses make people commit adultery by that rule that is in them that allows for divorce and remarriage.

I suggest you read some books and do a study on the word put-away, I am not going to go any further with that, however on my site you will find the answer in pages
 
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Please explain to us how the 'first resurrection" of 70 A.D.,

That pertained only to the Firstfruits, if you like, it was a historical parable.

There may very well have been a resurrection there, that is when the church became mature. However, if you like the literal time line effect, and I know you do, then when Jesus comes again, and He will, you will find out that it is AD 70 when you look down at your watch.

I will give you my Bible verse for that, one, It is appointed unto man once to die and after this ... AD 70.
 
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show us the errors don

I have too much on my plate right now.

"And whomever marries a divorced person commits adultery."

The word should be someone put-away.

If marriage to a divorced person was committing adultery than the Books of Moses make people commit adultery by that rule that is in them that allows for divorce and remarriage.

I suggest you read some books and do a study on the word put-away, I am not going to go any further with that, however on my site you will find the answer in pages

Don, you are quoting from the "New" King James Version of 1982, which reads:

"And I say to you, whoever divorces his wife, except for sexual immorality, and marries another, commits adultery; and whoever marries her who is divorced commits adultery.”" (Matt 19:9)

The Authorized King James Version of 1611 reads differently:

"And I say unto you, Whosoever shall put away his wife, except it be for fornication, and shall marry another, committeth adultery: and whoso marrieth her which is put away doth commit adultery.: " (Matt 19:9)

The New King James of 1982 has numerous inconsistencies and errors.

Dan
 
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