Separated - not divorced

[farouk]

Deuteronomy 24:1.

This is used in Jewish divorce.

The word "indecent" has many connotations here.

It can be used for almost any reason in a divorce.

Does this context imply that they have already lived together after the wedding ceremony?

 

[Rollo Tamasi]

I would assume so.

Why not?

I never heard of that before.

I'm talking about what Jews today use.

 

[farouk]

I would assume so.

Why not?

I never heard of that before.

I'm talking about what Jews today use.

You see, what might sometimes happen, is that a man would have to pay a big dowry and then after the wedding, he wants his money back and so declines to consummate the marriage on some supposed grounds relating to her, accurate or not.

Also, differently, when Joseph in the New Testament wanted to put Mary away at first, before he understood about the virgin birth, it was in the circumstances before they had come together: under Jewish custom, as betrothed they were considered a couple and a bill of divorcement was necessary even if they had not yet come together. This was the context of Joseph and Mary at the time of the Annunciation.

 

[Rollo Tamasi]

I understand.

But I don't see that being applied or assumed in Deuteronomy.

That's really all I can say about it.

 

[farouk]

I understand.

But I don't see that being applied or assumed in Deuteronomy.

That's really all I can say about it.

If you're assuming that the woman was out of favor because of adultery AFTER they came together, then adulterers would have been stoned; we know this from other passages.

So we can't assume this.

The situation of Joseph and Mary, before they came together, does fit the situation of a betrothed couple before they came together, needing a bill of divorcement before they were free to go their different ways.

 

[Deborah13]

Deuteronomy 24:1.

This is used in Jewish divorce.

The word "indecent" has many connotations here.

It can be used for almost any reason in a divorce.

According to the Thayer's Lexicon, see http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=H6172&t=KJV, you are correct in your statement.
However, Jesus instructed that it was allowed only because of their hardness of heart.

 

[farouk]

According to the Thayer's Lexicon, see http://www.blueletterbible.org/lang/lexicon/lexicon.cfm?Strongs=H6172&t=KJV, you are correct in your statement.
However, Jesus instructed that it was allowed only because of their hardness of heart.

It really won't do for a Christian, who is supposed to have been softened by the grace of God in the light of Calvary, to say: Hey, people, I deserve my right to a divorce because my heart is hard enough!

 

[Rollo Tamasi]

I guess it comes down to this.

Is it a sin or not?

 

[Deborah13]

It really won't do for a Christian, who is supposed to have been softened by the grace of God in the light of Calvary, to say: Hey, people, I deserve my right to a divorce because my heart is hard enough!

Jesus was quite clear in teaching why Moses allowed it. That is what I was answering. However, Jesus said that was not good enough.

I should have maybe been more detailed in my answer and quoted scripture.

 

[WIP]

Separated is an earthly legal term that influences our tax status and nothing more. Some seem to think it is a license to play the field but there again....worldly stuff.

 

[Rollo Tamasi]

I agree that this question of sin is at the core of this discussion.

I don't want to imply to anyone that I know the answer.