Thus it is very clear that all the Divine Persons in the Godhead invite or call ALL MEN TO SALVATION.
When you originally said “thus it is very clear…” then made your truth claim (All men are invited or called to salvation), you referenced the following passage for evidence:
1. 1 Tim 2:3-4,
2. John 12:32
3. Rev 22:17
4. Acts 3:17
And now you’ve reference:
5. Acts 17:30
WRT Acts 17:30
I think there, God
commands (which is different than calling or inviting, by the way) “all people everywhere” to repentance once they have heard the true Gospel,
upon their hearing the true Gospel (thus loosing their prior ignorance of the true Gospel by specifically hearing (hopefully they are listening to the Holy Sprit as you rightly point out) that God “
raised Him from the dead”. They are then and only then “
provided proof” of God that they were formerly “
ignorant” of before they heard. Once again, it’s not really a verse that’s literally meant to apply to every single individual on Earth. (Obviously it seems from the context of the verse.)
Read the context in/around Acts 17:30 (or at least the entire sentence thru to verse 31). Verse 30 is not even a whole sentence where as verse 31 shows that it’s not “ALL MEN” (i.e. every individual who’s ever lived on Earth) that Acts 17 is talking about to begin with.
Acts 17:30-31 and 32 (LEB) Therefore although God has overlooked the times of ignorance, he now commands all people everywhere to repent, because he has set a day on which he is going to judge the world in righteousness by the man who he has appointed, having provided proof to everyone by raising him from the dead. 32 Now when they heard about the resurrection of the dead,…
Do you think that “all men” throughout the whole world has heard that he has been
raised Him from the dead? I don’t. here’s why:
Rom 10:18 (LEB) And how will they hear about him without one who preaches to them?
The implied answer is; they have not and will not hear about Him (that is that the God-man dead and was
raised from the dead) unless someone tells them.
Obviously , to me, the context in/around all four of the passages you provided (including this one in Acts 17) narrows it's meaning for “all men” that which the author specifically intended for us to understand. Just as
netchaplain has already pointed out to you a couple of times now. We do communicate in this way and it's perfectly understood by the listener all the time. Get it? All the time. I didn't mean literally all the time.
Additionally,
commanding people (parangellei, as is used in Act 17:30), is a different action on God’s part than
calling or
inviting or
wanting (thelei
) or
drawing (helkyso) them to begin with.
1 Tim 2:3-4 (LEB)This is good and acceptable before God our Savior, who wants all people to be saved and to come to a knowledge of the truth.
Additionally, drawing all people (i.e. the non-Jewish peoples of the world) to Himself through the Gospel message which is about to be sent to them is quite different than accepting/rejecting the Jewish prophets sent only to the Jews.
John 12: 32 (LEB) And I, when I am lifted up from the earth, will draw all people to myself.
There Jesus was talking to Jews and telling them, that He was about to
draw (helkyso) in the Gentiles. It’s not even the same word (or meaning) that 1 Tim 2 uses.
Additionally, if you’d like an example of where “All people everywhere” seems to mean what you claim it means in these other passages, read Rom 1. There it seems, Paul truly is speaking of '
all people' in the sense that you claim these other verses are, in my opinion. Even then, I doubt his talking about pre-born infants, for example, since within this context he qualifies his statement (through the context) with those
people that express “
impiety and unrighteousness” and suppress the truth. Which I don’t think reasonably applies to infants nor do I think God has Wrath for infants (another topic).
Rom 1:18-20 (LEB) For the wrath of God is revealed from heaven against all impiety and unrighteousness of people, who suppress the truth in unrighteousness, because what can be known about God is evident among them, for God made it clear to them. For from the creation of the world, his invisible attributes, both his eternal power and deity, are discerned clearly, being understood in the things created, so that they are without excuse.
(Mk 16:15,16; Jn 3:36; Acts 3:19; 17:30). If God COMMANDS ALL MEN EVERYWHERE TO REPENT, then all men are capable of repentance. So are you in agreement with this?
None of the first three are a command to repentance.
17 And now, brothers, I know that you acted in ignorance, just as your rulers did also. 18 But the things which God foretold through the mouth of all the prophets, that his Christ would suffer, he has fulfilled in this way. 19 Therefore repent and turn back...
read the context again. He's talking to Jews at the Temple who had the OT Scriptures and should have know about His Christ within them. But they were just plain ignorant of it. In other words, they should have known about repentance through their prophets but didn't. But the point is, this passage is NOT about a command to repentance for every individual in the whole world. Yet you referenced it as one to support you truth claim.