[/quote:24iu2ya3]Clearly wrote:RND makes a two main points in a prior post.
1) Changes in manuscripts discredit the text.
2) Lack of original manuscripts discredit the text.
Regarding the two points that RND makes :
The first claim rnd makes is that changes in manuscripts discredit the manuscript. I think the logic here is incorrect as it applies to ancient texts. For example, if 3,900 changes to the Book of Mormon discredit it, then what does many, many more changes to the various bibles indicate? We see thousands of plus, of minus, and of variation changes made to Old and New Testament manuscripts. If we disregard a text based on the principle that it has “changedâ€, then does one disregard modern Old and New Testaments? (since OT and NT have undergone many more changes than the Book of Mormon or Quran or Pseudoepigraphs, or NT apocrypha or many other sacred historical texts)
My point is simply that the principle that changes in manuscript discredits the manuscript is a principle that cuts both ways and is going to be very discomforting to a Christian who is willing to apply it equally to their own texts. The agnostics who adopt this rule must automatically discard the Old and New Testaments. Historians realize that Old and New Testament manuscripts and various versions of these books cannot survive RND’s rule since the Old and New Testament texts have undergone so many changes themselves.
Papias not only reminds us that the New Testament of HIS day represented only a small portion of the sacred literature in circulation among the Christian Saints, but it is Papia's himself (a non apostle) who Lighfoot attributes our current version of the woman caught in "sin". It's long been known that John's trinity text was a spurious addition that was not in the earliest versions. Because of this, Erasmus left this text out of his New Testament translation (though the King James translators included it in their version - unfortunately). There are many, many other changes between versions that are IMPORTANT. For example, the different versions of the ten commandments between early protestant (Lutheran) bibles and Catholic Bibles. Bibles CONTINUE to change and evolve as we find mistakes in the current text. A good example are the changes made in Samuel prompted by mistakes (mainly minus and variation errors) revealed by Dead Sea Scroll texts discoveries. MANY verses in 1 Samuel have changed in several modern versions of the Old Testament because of these relatively modern discoveries. Another example are the changes in creation accounts during the last 50 years. Such changes are happening at an INCREASED RATE, not lessening.
It doesn't help when one simply overstates a claim as to how correct our old and New Testament Manuscripts are since individuals are becoming more able to research and see for themselves that such claims are incorrect.
The point is that the Old and New Testament texts HAVE thousands of errors that we are working on improving and they will continue to change as our knowledge of what might have been the original text improves. We cannot simply make an arbitrary rule to discredit another book which our Old and New Testament cannot survive.
The second rule rnd suggests is that a lack of original manuscripts discredits a textual history :
RND makes the claim that there are over 800 “verifiable†manuscripts for the Holy Bible. (Actually there are several THOUSAND of them). However, they ALL copies of copies and are NOT originals. We have ZERO original Old or New Testament autographs.
We have no way to know how similar our bibles are to the originals, nor can we prove that our modern bibles are the same as to the originals. Also, our thousands of copies of copies ARE different than one another and read differently. Obviously the differences indicate thousands of deletions, additions, and many, many errors of other types. How does one claim superiority of one manuscript over another? Age of the manuscript alone will not suffice.
Codex Bezae, for example (among the 5 most important New Testament manuscripts) is very ancient, but it is 20% LONGER than other manuscripts with a great deal of material not found in the other manuscripts. Do we automatically assume the others are missing what Besae included? Is Bezae a second edition of the New Testament? Is Bezae simply a “rogue†New Testament manuscript? Is it a “mixture†of all of these possibilities.
RND claimed that
"those manuscripts (still called manuscripts) have been painstakingly reproduced from the originals in the most accurate way humanly possible."
While is this true of some manuscripts (which still contain many plus, minus and variation errors....) it is not true of many of them. Again, Bezae is a good example. There are many parts of Bezae where it looks like the scribe has been drinking and the writing goes off in unusual directions.
Also, remember that mistakes in manuscripts which are "painstakingly reproduced" are still errors.
Some of these errors are made to very early manuscripts. For example, Clement complained concerning the Carpocratians and the changes they made to Marks Gospel and then distributed as a legitimate manuscript (though it was a corrupted version). If this version was "painstakingly reproduced", it still was a painstaking reproduction of a corruption. Remember also Clement (an apostolic father) pointed out that there were multiple versions of Marks Gospel. This is important, since Mark may be a contributing source for other texts.
We have ZERO original Old or New Testament Manuscripts. Without these autographs, we have no way of proving which of the many different manuscripts are most similar to what the originals might have said.. We do not even have a way of proving authorship of the books of the New Testament. We STILL argue over who wrote Hebrews (since we don’t know who the author was). To the extent that we cannot prove their authorship, we must admit they are somewhat apocryphal.
My point is, that before one makes up a principle by which they will discredit another sacred text, they need to see if their own book can survive the rule they make for others. The Old and New testaments cannot survive these two rules rnd makes for sacred texts.
Clearly
twacviue
[quote:24iu2ya3] RND responded : “You are trying to argue as if the book of Mormon is inspired text. It is not. Thus there are no verifiable manuscripts (copies of the original) to examine unlike the Holy Scriptures that have left a witness to the accuracy of the Bible.â€
Again, your conclusion is incorrect, and is a deflection of the points I made. Re-read my post.
I made two simple points in my post :
1) My first point was that IF you theorize that a text is invalid due to changes, THEN we MUST hold the bible as invalid due to the many thousands of changes IT has undergone. This is very simple. Read my points and the examples I gave you.
Your theory is the very same one that athiests and agnostics use to discredit and invalidate the biblical record. Critics have correctly pointed out many biblical errors, spurious additions, deletions and many other errors to show that the bibles are invalid. My point is that the fact that biblical records contain many errors and deletions and spurious additions and it changes constantly to improve and correct the record, this does NOT mean the bible is invalid or of no use to us. This sacred text is of profound importance DESPITE errors in the texts.
2) My second point is that IF you theorize that any sacred text is invalid without original manuscripts, THEN we must hold the bible as invalid since we have no original biblical manuscripts to tell us what the bible originally said. This is also very, very simple principle.
Re-read my points. I am NOT trying to invalidate the bible, rather I'm trying to inject more accuracy into the claims that are being made. Accuracy is NOT unimportant in this matter. If agnostics believe your two personal theories as to what invalidates a sacred text, they will use such invalid logic in their proofs against ALL sacred literature, including the biblical text which has the very same faults as the texts you seek to discredit.
RND repeated a claim "Thus there are no verifiable manuscripts (copies of the original) to examine unlike the Holy Scriptures that have left a witness to the accuracy of the Bible."
Your claim we have "manuscripts" that "leave us a witness to the accuracy of the Bible", is an extremely naive claim since it is the fact that several thousand incongruent manuscripts exist that give us the witness that they contain thousands of inconcruencies, inconsistencies, and errors. If you really believe that we have a SINGLE autograph of either the Old OR New Testament that has been discovered somewhere, please, tell us where it is or who has it. No scholar or college or university or country has ever honestly made that claim. We cannot use Siainaticus, Bezae, Alexandrus, Studengartensus, Vaticanus since ALL of them have errors and discrepancies with other manuscripts. The problem is just as difficult if we consider Old Testament Manuscripts. Name a SINGLE exant manuscript that we can use that does not have inconsistencies.
Please, RND, do not misunderstand, I do not mean to make you uncomfortable or simply give you argument. If you believe my points are incorrect, you are free to offer data to educate me as to any error I might have made in the two specific points we are discussing.
If you can give me data as to where I am incorrect, I can correct my thinking. I have given you multiple concrete examples of my points. If you actually have any data that might clarify where I am wrong, now is the time to offer it.
Clearly
twnevinb